HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What is the primary role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?
- A. Pacemaker of the heart
- B. Blood pressure regulation
- C. Electrical conduction delay
- D. Stimulating muscle contraction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pacemaker of the heart. The SA node, known as the natural pacemaker, initiates the electrical impulses that set the rhythm for the heartbeat. It is responsible for coordinating the heart's contractions by generating electrical signals at regular intervals. Choice B is incorrect as the SA node's primary function is not related to blood pressure regulation. Choice C is incorrect as the SA node does not cause electrical conduction delay but rather initiates and conducts the electrical impulses. Choice D is incorrect as the SA node does not directly stimulate muscle contraction but rather initiates the electrical events that lead to muscle contraction.
2. An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the PN?
- A. No bowel movement for two days
- B. Mother assists child in changing positions
- C. Weights are touching the foot of the bed
- D. Child is able to move the toes freely when tickled
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In 90-90 traction, it is crucial to ensure that the weights are not touching the foot of the bed as this can disrupt the effective application of traction. This interference can hinder the proper alignment of the fractured femur and impede the healing process. Therefore, this finding requires immediate action to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the proper application of traction and do not pose a risk to the patient's treatment or well-being. No bowel movement for two days may indicate constipation but does not directly relate to the traction. Mother assisting the child in changing positions is a supportive action. The child being able to move the toes freely when tickled indicates neurological function, which is a positive sign.
3. A client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing nausea despite the NG tube being patent. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Increase the suction on the NG tube.
- B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- C. Irrigate the NG tube with saline.
- D. Reposition the client to the left side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering an antiemetic as prescribed is the best action for the nurse to take when a client with a patent NG tube is experiencing nausea. This intervention can help relieve nausea effectively. Increasing suction on the NG tube (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the nausea and could potentially lead to complications. Irrigating the NG tube with saline (Choice C) is not indicated for addressing nausea in this scenario. Repositioning the client to the left side (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for nausea in a client with a patent NG tube.
4. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
- A. Clubbed nails
- B. Splinter hemorrhages
- C. Longitudinal ridges
- D. Koilonychia or spoon nails
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
5. You are caring for a patient who just gave birth to a 6 lb. 13 oz. baby boy. The infant gave out a lusty cry, had a pink coloration all over his body, had flexed arms and legs, cried when stimulated, and had a pulse rate of 94. What Apgar score would you expect for this baby?
- A. 10
- B. 8
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method used to quickly assess the health of newborns. In this scenario, the baby would receive 2 points for color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone, but only 1 point for a pulse rate of 94, resulting in an Apgar score of 9. An Apgar score of 9 indicates that the baby is in good health overall. Choice A (10) is incorrect because a pulse rate of 94 would only score 1 point. Choices B (8) and C (7) are incorrect as the given criteria would lead to a higher score, indicating the baby's good health.
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