Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important goal of care for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been taking the benzodiazepine alprazolam (Xanax) long-term? The client will:

• A. Describe a decrease in anxiety using a 1 to 10 anxiety scale.
• B. State the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication.
• C. Not experience dizziness, lightheadedness, or sedation.
• D. Attend scheduled individual and group therapy sessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The most important goal of care for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) taking alprazolam long-term is to ensure they understand the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication. Abruptly stopping benzodiazepines can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential complications. Choice A is not the most critical goal as the focus should be on the safe continuation of the medication. Choice C is important but not as crucial as preventing abrupt discontinuation. Choice D is beneficial for overall treatment but not the most important goal in this scenario.

2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to explore the delusions in depth.
• B. Tell the client that the delusions are not real.
• C. Explore the underlying meaning of the delusions.
• D. Distract the client from the delusions and focus on reality.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to distract the client from the delusions and focus on reality. Encouraging the client to explore the delusions in depth (Choice A) may worsen the delusions. Telling the client that the delusions are not real (Choice B) can lead to confrontation and disbelief. Exploring the underlying meaning of the delusions (Choice C) may not be effective during acute episodes of delusions; hence, distracting the client and refocusing on reality is the most suitable intervention.

3. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you start feeling better.
• B. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• C. The medication works immediately to improve your mood.
• D. It may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.

4. An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. The client is manic and may need a sleeping pill
• B. The client is experiencing a medication interaction and should go to the ED
• C. The client is experiencing a paradoxical reaction to the Ativan and should stop the new medication immediately
• D. The client is overcome by grief and probably needs an antidepressant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

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