Nursing Elites

1. What is the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy?

• A. Assessing FHR and maternal vital signs.
• B. Performing a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
• C. Placing clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
• D. Monitoring uterine contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. This assessment is crucial in determining the extent of blood loss and its impact on both the mother and the fetus. Ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus is the top priority in this situation. While obtaining hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important, it can be done after the initial assessment. Placing clean disposable pads is necessary for managing any drainage but does not take precedence over assessing vital signs. Monitoring uterine contractions is important but is not the highest priority when compared to assessing the FHR and maternal vital signs.

2. In the prenatal record, the nurse should record for the pregnant client who has a 3-year-old child at home, a term birth, a miscarriage at 10 weeks’ gestation, and a set of twins who died within 24 hours:

• A. Gravida 2, para 1.
• B. Gravida 3, para 3.
• C. Gravida 4, para 2.
• D. Gravida 5, para 4.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gravida 4, para 2.' Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. In this case, the client has been pregnant a total of 4 times, so gravida is 4. Para is the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, which is 2 in this case. The client has had a term birth and a set of twins who died within 24 hours, totaling 2 pregnancies that reached viability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the client's obstetric history based on the information provided.

3. The embryo and fetus develop within a protective _______ in the uterus.

• A. amniotic sac
• B. umbilical cord
• C. neural tube
• D. embryonic disk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the amniotic sac. The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled structure that surrounds and protects the developing embryo and fetus in the uterus. It provides a cushion against external pressure, allows for movement and growth, and helps maintain a stable environment for the developing fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta and serves as a conduit for nutrients and waste; the neural tube is a structure that forms the central nervous system in early embryonic development; and the embryonic disk is a structure that forms during gastrulation, one of the early stages of embryonic development.

4. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?

• A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
• B. Placenta previa
• C. Midline episiotomy
• D. Gestational hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?

• A. Contraction duration of 100 seconds.
• B. Four contractions in 10 minutes.
• C. Uterus is soft.
• D. Early deceleration of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.

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