Nursing Elites

1. What foods are appropriate for a 30-month-old toddler on a regular diet?

• A. Hamburger with bun and grapes
• B. Chicken fingers and french fries
• C. Hot dog with bun and potato chips
• D. Macaroni and cheese and Cheerios

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Macaroni and cheese and Cheerios are appropriate choices for a 30-month-old toddler on a regular diet. These foods are easy to chew, digest, and are generally well-liked by toddlers. Option A, a hamburger with bun and grapes, may be difficult for a toddler to handle due to the size of the hamburger and grapes pose a choking hazard. Option B, chicken fingers and french fries, may be too greasy and processed for a toddler's developing digestive system. Option C, hot dog with bun and potato chips, is also not ideal as hot dogs can be a choking hazard and potato chips are high in salt and may not provide adequate nutrition.

2. What should parents be taught when a 7-year-old child with a history of seizures is being discharged from the hospital?

• A. Administer antiepileptic medication as prescribed
• B. Ensure the child receives adequate sleep
• C. Restrict the child's activities to prevent seizures
• D. Teach seizure first aid to family members

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching seizure first aid to family members is crucial in ensuring the child's safety during a seizure. This education empowers family members to respond effectively, protect the child from injury, and provide appropriate care. Option A is incorrect because antiepileptic medication should be administered as prescribed, not only when a seizure occurs. Option B, while important for overall health, is not specific to managing seizures. Option C is incorrect as there is no evidence that restricting activities prevents seizures, and it may negatively impact the child's quality of life without offering additional safety benefits.

3. A 3-year-old child has a sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illnesses or fever. You should suspect

• A. croup
• B. epiglottitis
• C. lower respiratory infection
• D. foreign body airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child presenting with sudden respiratory distress without fever or recent illness, the most likely cause is a foreign body airway obstruction. Foreign body airway obstruction can lead to a sudden onset of respiratory distress as it blocks the air passage. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and stridor, often preceded by a viral illness. Epiglottitis is characterized by high fever, drooling, and a muffled voice. Lower respiratory infections usually present with symptoms such as cough, fever, and chest congestion. Therefore, in this case, the absence of recent illness or fever makes foreign body airway obstruction the most likely cause of the respiratory distress.

4. During a routine monthly examination, a 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic. What assessment finding should alert the nurse to notify the health care provider?

• A. Temperature of 99.5°F
• B. Blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute
• D. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute in a 5-month-old infant is considered high and may indicate respiratory distress. Infants normally have a higher respiratory rate than older children and adults, but a rate of 50 breaths per minute is above the expected range. This finding warrants immediate attention as it may be indicative of an underlying respiratory issue or distress. Choice A (Temperature of 99.5°F) is within the normal range for body temperature and does not necessarily indicate a critical issue. Choice B (Blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg) is not typically assessed in isolation for a 5-month-old infant during a routine examination, and the values provided are not indicative of a critical condition. Choice C (Heart rate of 100 beats per minute) is within the normal range for heart rate in infants and may not be a cause for immediate concern during a routine examination.

5. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?

• A. Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid
• B. Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn
• C. Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours
• D. Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, the majority of the volume should be administered within the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because crystalloids are typically administered first in fluid resuscitation for burns. Choice B is incorrect as fluid replacement in burn patients is primarily determined by the extent of the burn injury rather than the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as the goal for hourly urine output in burn patients is generally higher, aiming for 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion and prevent dehydration.

Similar Questions