Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.

• A. Chest pain relieved by rest.
• B. Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets.
• C. Chest pain occurring only with exertion.
• D. Chest pain lasting less than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets indicates a possible myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.

2. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden onset of severe eye pain and blurred vision. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Place an eye patch over the affected eye.
• D. Prepare the client for a CT scan.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B). Sudden severe eye pain and blurred vision can indicate acute angle-closure glaucoma, which is a medical emergency requiring prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent vision loss. Administering pain medication (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Placing an eye patch (Choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the exact cause of the symptoms. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) is not the immediate priority in this situation where urgent medical attention is needed.

4. On the first postoperative day, the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. Previously, he was oriented to person, place, and time on admission. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a sedative.
• B. Determine the client’s blood pressure.
• C. Apply soft restraints.
• D. Call for assistance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement first is to determine the client’s blood pressure. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to rule out physiological causes like hypotension leading to the client's disorientation. Administering a sedative (Choice A) without understanding the underlying cause may worsen the situation. Applying soft restraints (Choice C) should not be the initial action and can be considered later if necessary. Calling for assistance (Choice D) may be needed eventually, but assessing the client's blood pressure takes precedence to address the immediate concern.

5. Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?

• A. Prothrombin time
• B. Bleeding time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.

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