Nursing Elites

1. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

• A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
• B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
• C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
• D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

2. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?

• A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
• B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
• C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
• D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.

3. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor. What is the best advice the nurse can provide?

• A. Avoid high-fiber foods
• B. Use an odor-proof pouch
• C. Decrease fluid intake
• D. Increase dairy products in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best advice the nurse can provide to a client concerned about odor from a new colostomy is to use an odor-proof pouch. This option helps control odors effectively by containing and masking any unpleasant smells. Avoiding high-fiber foods (Choice A) is not the best advice as fiber is essential for bowel health, and decreasing fluid intake (Choice C) can lead to dehydration and other complications. Increasing dairy products in the diet (Choice D) is not directly related to controlling odors from a colostomy.

4. A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?

• A. Supine with legs elevated
• B. High Fowler's position
• C. Prone with pillows under the chest
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.

5. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
• B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
• C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
• D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.

Similar Questions