Nursing Elites

1. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

• A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
• B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
• C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
• D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

2. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

• A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
• B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
• C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
• D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

3. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

4. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Urine output
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

5. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
• B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
• C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
• D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.

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