HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
- D. Take the medication in the morning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.
2. The client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is being taught about diet management by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?
- A. I should not avoid all carbohydrates
- B. I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my medication
- C. I need to eat regular meals and snacks to maintain my blood sugar levels
- D. I will decrease my intake of sugary foods to prevent low blood sugar
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because eating regular meals and snacks is crucial for maintaining stable blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. This approach helps prevent spikes and drops in blood sugar, promoting better management of the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended as they are a major energy source and can be part of a balanced diet; eating whatever one wants while relying solely on medication can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels and complications; decreasing sugary foods intake can actually contribute to high blood sugar levels rather than preventing low blood sugar.
3. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.
4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications. What should be emphasized?
- A. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods
- B. Eating small, frequent meals
- C. Avoiding meals before bedtime
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing GERD, dietary modifications play a significant role. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods helps reduce irritation, while eating small, frequent meals prevents overeating, which can trigger reflux. Avoiding meals before bedtime allows for better digestion and reduces the likelihood of acid reflux during the night. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are crucial in managing GERD symptoms, making choice D the correct answer.
5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
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