Nursing Elites

1. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?

• A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
• B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
• C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
• D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

3. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?

• A. If the client has any metal implants
• B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
• C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
• D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.

4. When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Advise the client that suctioning will be used to obtain another specimen
• B. Re-instruct the client in coughing techniques to obtain another specimen
• C. Provide the client a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth
• D. Label the container and place the container in a biohazard transport bag

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.

5. A client is being treated for heart failure. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate treatment effectiveness?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Electrolyte levels
• C. Urine output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight, electrolyte levels, and urine output is crucial in evaluating treatment effectiveness for heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps assess fluid retention or loss, changes in electrolyte levels can indicate imbalances affecting heart function, and urine output monitoring provides insights into kidney function and fluid balance. Therefore, all options are essential components in assessing the patient's fluid status and response to treatment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they only represent partial aspects of monitoring heart failure treatment effectiveness.

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