HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. A client's daughter phones the charge nurse to report that the night nurse did not provide good care for her mother. What response should the nurse make?
- A. Explain that all staff are doing their best
- B. Ask for a description of what happened during the night
- C. Tell the daughter to talk to the unit's nurse manager
- D. Reassure the daughter that the mother will get better care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to ask for a description of what happened during the night. This allows the nurse to gather specific information about the care provided and address the complaint appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the concern by stating that all staff are doing their best does not address the specific complaint. Choice C is not the best immediate response as the charge nurse should first gather information before escalating the issue to the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on reassurance without addressing the reported issue.
2. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 50
- B. 67
- C. 57
- D. 70
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL รท 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.
3. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- C. Place the client in an upright position
- D. Assess the client's peak flow rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath due to asthma. Bronchodilators help relieve bronchoconstriction, allowing better airflow and improving breathing. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial in certain situations, but it is not the priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Placing the client in an upright position, not supine, can facilitate easier breathing by allowing the chest to expand fully. While assessing the client's peak flow rate is important in asthma management, in this acute situation, the priority is to provide immediate relief by administering the bronchodilator.
4. The nurse explains the 2-week dosage prescription of prednisone (Deltasone) to a client who has poison ivy over multiple skin surfaces. What should the nurse emphasize about the dosing schedule?
- A. Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed
- B. Monitor oral temperature daily
- C. Take the prednisone with meals
- D. Return for blood glucose monitoring in one week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed.' Tapering the dosage of prednisone is crucial to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the side effects of corticosteroid therapy. Decreasing the dosage gradually over time allows the body to adjust and reduces the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Monitoring oral temperature daily, taking prednisone with meals, or returning for blood glucose monitoring in one week are not specific to the dosing schedule of prednisone for poison ivy treatment.
5. A grand multiparous client had a precipitous delivery in the emergency room 6 hours ago. The client was given oxytocin intramuscularly after birth. The nurse examines the client and observes the pad under her buttocks is full of blood. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Place a new pad and weigh the pad removed to determine blood loss.
- B. Massage the fundus and express clots.
- C. Start an IV and begin an oxytocin infusion.
- D. Clean the perineal area and encourage her to breastfeed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Massaging the fundus and expressing clots helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum hemorrhage.
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