Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

2. A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, the nurse was found asleep in a chair in the break room not during a break time. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Alert the American Nurses Association.
• B. Fill out an incident report.
• C. Report the observations to the nurse manager on the unit.
• D. Leave the nurse alone to sleep.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reporting the observations to the nurse manager is the appropriate action to ensure the safety of the clients and address potential impairment. The nurse manager can take necessary steps to assess the situation and intervene if needed. Alerting the American Nurses Association (Choice A) is not necessary at this stage as the immediate concern is the safety of clients in the unit. Filling out an incident report (Choice B) may be required later, but the priority is to address the issue promptly by involving the immediate supervisor. Leaving the nurse alone to sleep (Choice D) is not a safe option as it does not address the underlying problem of potential impairment and safety concerns; it is essential to address the issue promptly to ensure patient safety.

3. In an emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client who reports right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Auscultate bowel sounds.
• B. Administer an antiemetic.
• C. Offer pain medication.
• D. Palpate the abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to auscultate bowel sounds. This step is crucial to assess bowel activity before proceeding with palpation or administering medications. Assessing bowel sounds can provide valuable information about bowel motility and potential obstructions. Administering an antiemetic or offering pain medication may be necessary but should come after assessing bowel sounds to ensure appropriate treatment. Palpating the abdomen should be avoided initially to prevent potential discomfort or complications, especially if there is suspected abdominal pathology.

4. A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side and the client did this. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?

• A. Why don’t we now have the client turn back to the left side.
• B. That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?
• C. Let’s check to see if the suppository is in far enough.
• D. Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate comment by the nurse is to affirm the correct technique while offering support and checking for any issues during the insertion.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 0.5 ml
• B. 1 ml
• C. 1.5 ml
• D. 2 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

Similar Questions