Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client’s arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Obtain a specimen for culture.
• B. Apply a warm compress.
• C. Administer analgesics.
• D. Discontinue the infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.

4. A nurse is caring for an older, immobile patient whose condition requires a supine position. Which metabolic alteration will the nurse monitor for in this patient?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Increased diarrhea
• C. Increased metabolic rate
• D. Increased pulse rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When an older, immobile patient is in a supine position, it increases cardiac workload, leading to an increased pulse rate. This is because the heart rate in older adults may not tolerate the additional workload. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an increased appetite, increased diarrhea, and increased metabolic rate are not directly associated with being immobile in a supine position. Increased appetite is more related to nutritional needs or certain medical conditions, increased diarrhea could be due to various causes, and an increased metabolic rate is not typically a direct consequence of lying supine.

5. What intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention?

• A. Apply a condom catheter.
• B. Apply a skin protectant.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Assess for bladder distention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention is to assess for bladder distention. This assessment is crucial as it helps identify the underlying cause of urinary retention, such as bladder distention or obstruction. By assessing the bladder, the LPN/LVN can determine the appropriate interventions needed, such as catheterization, medication administration, or further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Applying a condom catheter (Choice A) is more suitable for urinary incontinence, not retention. Applying a skin protectant (Choice B) is typically done to prevent skin breakdown in incontinent clients. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) may be beneficial for some urinary issues but is not the priority intervention for urinary retention.

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