HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. What should the nurse do to complete a focused assessment for a female client with inflamed and painful hemorrhoids?
- A. Determine if the client uses any over-the-counter preparations for hemorrhoids
- B. Place the client in a standing position, leaning over the exam bed for inspection
- C. Position the client in the left lateral position to inspect the perineal area for fissures or sacs
- D. Ask the client how long she has experienced discomfort related to hemorrhoids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Asking the client about the duration of discomfort related to hemorrhoids is the best intervention to implement for a focused assessment. This information provides important context for assessing the severity and chronicity of the condition, which is crucial for developing an appropriate care plan. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need to gather information about the duration of symptoms, which is essential for understanding the client's condition.
2. How does the home care nurse determine that a 78-year-old client is unable to remain in his current residence alone?
- A. The goals set by the client
- B. The learning level of the client
- C. Assessing the home environment
- D. The distractions in the client's home
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the home environment. This process is vital in evaluating whether an elderly client can safely live independently. Factors like safety hazards and the client's ability to handle daily activities are considered during this assessment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because determining the client's ability to remain in his residence alone relies more on evaluating the home environment for safety and suitability rather than the client's goals, learning level, or distractions in the home.
3. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
- A. Prescription for lorazepam
- B. History of Parkinson's disease
- C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
- D. Recent urine drug screen report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.
4. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering a bronchodilator
- B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
- C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
5. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.
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