HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Remain in the room to supervise the UAP
- B. Determine if the UAP would like assistance
- C. Assume care of the client immediately
- D. Instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.
2. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
- A. Clubbed nails
- B. Splinter hemorrhages
- C. Longitudinal ridges
- D. Koilonychia or spoon nails
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
3. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
4. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.
5. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?
- A. Congestive
- B. Dilated
- C. Hypertrophic
- D. Restrictive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.
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