HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Remain in the room to supervise the UAP
- B. Determine if the UAP would like assistance
- C. Assume care of the client immediately
- D. Instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.
2. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering a bronchodilator
- B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
- C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
3. At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?
- A. 4
- B. 6
- C. 8
- D. 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.
4. A 50-year-old female is in the hospital with peripheral artery disease. In the nursing care plan, the nurse lists the following nursing diagnosis: Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral related to venous stasis. Which of the following would not be an appropriate nursing action to list in the implementation of this diagnosis?
- A. Keep the client's extremities cold
- B. Check for strength and symmetry of peripheral pulses
- C. Keep the client's legs elevated
- D. Monitor for any constrictions, such as clothes or covers that are too tight around the legs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the client’s extremities cold would worsen perfusion issues and is not recommended. In peripheral artery disease, maintaining warmth is crucial to promote vasodilation and improve blood flow. Checking peripheral pulses for strength and symmetry, keeping the client's legs elevated to reduce venous stasis, and monitoring for constrictions that may impair circulation are appropriate nursing actions to enhance tissue perfusion in this case. Thus, option A is incorrect as it would hinder perfusion in the affected extremities.
5. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?
- A. Due date
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Gravida and parity
- D. Fundal height
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.
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