Nursing Elites

1. The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Remain in the room to supervise the UAP
• B. Determine if the UAP would like assistance
• C. Assume care of the client immediately
• D. Instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.

2. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• B. To improve circulation in the legs.
• C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
• D. To alleviate post-operative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.

4. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

5. When caring for a patient with a chest tube, which nursing action is most important?

• A. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours to prevent air leaks
• B. Keeping the drainage system below chest level
• C. Emptying the drainage system every hour to prevent backflow
• D. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below chest level (choice B). This position helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid or air into the pleural space, promoting optimal functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (choice A) is incorrect as it can obstruct the drainage system and lead to complications. Emptying the drainage system every hour (choice C) is unnecessary unless there are specific clinical indications. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly (choice D) is also incorrect as the decision should be based on overall clinical assessment rather than drainage amount alone.

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