the nurse is assigned to administer medications in a long term care facility a disoriented resident has no identification band or picture what is the
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam

1. The nurse is assigned to administer medications in a long-term care facility. A disoriented resident has no identification band or picture. What is the best nursing action for the nurse to take prior to administering the medications to this resident?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a long-term care facility, when a disoriented resident lacks identification, it is crucial to confirm the resident's identity before administering medication to prevent errors. Asking a regular staff member who is familiar with the resident to confirm their identity is the best course of action. This ensures accuracy and safety in medication administration. Holding the medication until a family member can confirm the identity could delay necessary treatment. Re-orienting the resident is important for their well-being but does not address the immediate medication safety concern. Confirming room and bed numbers, though important for administration logistics, does not verify the resident's identity.

2. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.

3. Which intervention is most appropriate when caring for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to ensure patient safety by maintaining an open airway to prevent aspiration. Turning the patient to the side helps achieve this goal by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration. Restraint can lead to injury, placing a tongue depressor can cause harm or obstruct the airway further, and attempting to stop the seizure by holding the patient's arms is ineffective and can also result in injury. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to turn the patient to the side.

4. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.

5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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