Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to provide wound care for a client. Which step should be done first?

• A. Don procedural gloves
• B. Remove the dressing
• C. Apply prescribed medications to the wound
• D. Don a pair of sterile gloves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to don procedural gloves first. Donning procedural gloves is essential to protect the nurse from contaminants while removing the old dressing. This step helps maintain aseptic technique and prevents the transfer of microorganisms. Removing the dressing (choice B) should follow after wearing gloves to prevent the spread of pathogens. Applying prescribed medications (choice C) should be done after the wound is cleaned and dressed. Donning a pair of sterile gloves (choice D) is not necessary for initial wound care; procedural gloves are sufficient for standard wound care.

2. A client is recovering from a craniotomy and has a ventriculostomy in place. The nurse notices the drainage from the ventriculostomy is suddenly increasing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• B. Clamp the ventriculostomy tube.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Measure the client's head circumference.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sudden increase in drainage from a ventriculostomy could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or hemorrhage. The priority action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Increasing the head of the bed may be beneficial in some situations but is not the first action to take. Clamping the ventriculostomy tube is inappropriate as it can lead to increased intracranial pressure. Measuring the client's head circumference is not the priority when there is a sudden increase in ventriculostomy drainage.

3. The client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard is exhibiting a sign of disturbed thought processes. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?

• A. Altered sensory perception
• B. Impaired social interaction
• C. Risk for self-directed violence
• D. Disturbed thought processes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of words, is a sign of disturbed thought processes commonly seen in clients with schizophrenia. It reflects a disorganization in thinking rather than a sensory perception issue (Choice A). Impaired social interaction (Choice B) refers to difficulties in relating to others, which is not the primary concern in echolalia. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) focuses on potential harm to self, which is separate from the repetitive behavior of echolalia.

4. The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Report the findings to the charge nurse
• B. Monitor the client's temperature hourly
• C. Offer the client fluids frequently
• D. Provide care to moisten oral mucosa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The change in the client’s condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.

5. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

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