Nursing Elites

1. To succeed in her health education program, the PHN needs to be adept in:

• A. teaching-learning strategies
• B. providing accurate information
• C. communicating ideas effectively
• D. all of these

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To excel in a health education program, a Public Health Nurse (PHN) must possess a combination of teaching-learning strategies to effectively impart knowledge, provide accurate information to ensure credibility, and communicate ideas effectively to engage and interact with the audience. Therefore, all of these skills are essential for a PHN to succeed in her health education program. Choices A, B, and C are integral components of a successful health education program, making option D the correct answer.

2. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

3. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

4. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?

• A. Compulsive behavior
• B. Sense of impending doom
• C. Fear of flying
• D. Predictable episodes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.

5. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

• A. Extreme fatigue
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Intense itching
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

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