Nursing Elites

1. To succeed in her health education program, the PHN needs to be adept in:

• A. teaching-learning strategies
• B. providing accurate information
• C. communicating ideas effectively
• D. all of these

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To excel in a health education program, a Public Health Nurse (PHN) must possess a combination of teaching-learning strategies to effectively impart knowledge, provide accurate information to ensure credibility, and communicate ideas effectively to engage and interact with the audience. Therefore, all of these skills are essential for a PHN to succeed in her health education program. Choices A, B, and C are integral components of a successful health education program, making option D the correct answer.

2. A client was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. When auscultating the client's breath sounds, the nurse hears inspiratory crackles in the right base. Temperature is 102.3 degrees Fahrenheit orally. What finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Flushed skin
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Mental confusion
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.

3. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

• A. recovery from physical limitation and psychological regression
• B. health teaching and immunization
• C. rehabilitation of alcoholic and drug dependents
• D. preventing disability and maximum use of remaining capacity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

4. In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?

• A. Take the client's respirations, blood pressure (BP), temperature and then pupillary responses
• B. Place the client into the bed and administer the ordered PRN analgesic
• C. Check the client for bladder distention and the client's urinary catheter for kinks
• D. Turn the television off and then assist client to use relaxation techniques

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin (Epogen). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Erythropoietin can lead to hypertension as a side effect due to its stimulation of red blood cell production, which can increase blood viscosity. This can result in elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of erythropoietin. Hyperkalemia is more commonly associated with renal failure rather than erythropoietin use. Hypocalcemia is not a typical side effect of erythropoietin administration.

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