Nursing Elites

1. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the PN implement?

• A. Stimulate the infant to cry
• B. Give oxygen by positive pressure
• C. Suction the oral and nasal passages
• D. Turn the infant onto the right side

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is the correct immediate intervention in this scenario. Regurgitation leading to cyanosis indicates a potential airway obstruction, which requires prompt action to clear. Stimulating the infant to cry (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of airway obstruction. Giving oxygen by positive pressure (Choice B) can be beneficial, but clearing the airway obstruction takes precedence. Turning the infant onto the right side (Choice D) does not directly address the need to clear the airway.

2. A client is admitted to the postoperative surgical unit with two test tubes after a left lobectomy. The nurse observed that the chambers are set at the prescribed suction of 20 cm water pressure, and tidying occurs with respirations and bubbling. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Clamp the chest tube to see if the bubbling activity stops
• B. Notify the registered nurse of the observed bubbling
• C. Maintain system integrity to promote lung reexpansion
• D. Apply an occlusive dressing to the chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining system integrity is essential to promote lung reexpansion in postoperative patients with chest tubes. Clamping the chest tube abruptly can lead to tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition. The bubbling observed is a normal sign indicating that the system is functioning correctly, as it allows the drainage of air or fluid from the pleural space. Notifying the registered nurse may be necessary if there are significant concerns or changes observed, but the immediate action should be to ensure system integrity and lung reexpansion.

3. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

4. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?

• A. Record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse
• B. Ask the family members to visit more often to stimulate the patient
• C. Motivate the client by offering favorite foods as a prize
• D. Withhold any medications that may cause side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.

5. While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.

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