the patient is being admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke when will the nurse begin discharge planning
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1. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

2. During a health assessment, a client who takes herbal supplements makes a statement indicating an understanding of their use. Which statement is most indicative of this understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because ginkgo biloba is commonly used to help with headaches, among other benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because garlic is not typically used for menopausal symptoms, ginger is mainly used for nausea and vomiting (not car sickness specifically), and echinacea is not known to control cholesterol.

3. A client needs to maintain a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend as a good source of complete protein?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is the correct answer as it is a good source of complete protein that contains all essential amino acids required for maintaining a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Complete proteins provide all essential amino acids needed by the body. White rice, apples, and green beans do not offer complete proteins like cheddar cheese, making them inadequate choices for this purpose.

4. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

5. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

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