Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

2. A nurse observes smoke coming from under the door of the staff lounge. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Extinguish the fire.
• B. Activate the fire alarm.
• C. Move clients who are nearby.
• D. Close all open doors on the unit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a fire emergency, the nurse's priority is to activate the fire alarm. This action alerts others to the emergency, initiates the evacuation process, and ensures everyone's safety. Extinguishing the fire can be dangerous and should be left to trained personnel. Moving clients who are nearby might delay the activation of the alarm and can put the nurse and clients at risk. Closing all open doors on the unit is important to contain the fire but should not take precedence over alerting others through the fire alarm system.

3. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0-10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?

• A. "It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed."
• B. "I will use the pain medication as prescribed to manage the pain."
• C. "I will request a different type of pain medication if the pain persists."
• D. "I will ask for a physical therapist to help with the pain."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Listening to music is a non-pharmacological method to help manage mild pain, reflecting an understanding of pain management strategies. It shows the client's grasp of non-pharmacological pain management techniques taught preoperatively. Choice B, while important, only addresses pharmacological pain management, omitting other strategies discussed in preoperative teaching. Choice C jumps to changing medications without considering non-pharmacological methods first, indicating a narrow approach to pain management. Choice D involves a physical therapist, which is not directly related to the pain management strategies typically discussed in preoperative teaching.

4. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

5. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who is post-operative following a hip replacement. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Pain at the surgical site
• B. Swelling in the affected leg
• C. Elevated temperature
• D. Shortness of breath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical assessment finding that could indicate a pulmonary embolism or other serious complication related to surgery, such as a respiratory issue or cardiac problem. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Pain at the surgical site is common post-operatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Swelling in the affected leg is expected after a hip replacement and can often be managed conservatively or monitored closely. An elevated temperature could be a sign of infection, which is important to address but may not require immediate intervention unless other symptoms of sepsis are present.

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