Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

2. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer due to a lesion on the anterior thigh. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a possible indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. An uneven shape
• B. A uniformly colored lesion
• C. A lesion that is small and flat
• D. A lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An uneven shape of a lesion is a common characteristic of malignant skin lesions. Asymmetric or irregularly shaped lesions are concerning for skin cancer and should be reported promptly for further evaluation and management. Choice B, a uniformly colored lesion, is more indicative of a benign lesion as malignant lesions often exhibit variations in color. Choice C, a lesion that is small and flat, does not necessarily indicate malignancy by itself. Choice D, a lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter, is more suggestive of a benign lesion, as malignant lesions are typically larger in size.

3. A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

• A. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client's medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse.
• B. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation.
• C. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client's durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client's care.
• D. A nurse discusses a client's status with the physical therapist who is caring for the client at the bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIPAA guidelines specify that only healthcare professionals directly involved in a patient's care should access their medical information. Asking a nurse from another unit to assist with documentation involves sharing patient information with someone not directly caring for the patient, which violates HIPAA guidelines. Choices A, C, and D involve individuals directly involved in the client's care, making them appropriate actions in line with HIPAA regulations. Choice A involves educating a nursing student under the supervision of the nurse, which is permissible. Choice C involves communicating with the client's designated healthcare decision-maker, which is also allowed under HIPAA. Choice D involves discussing the client's status with another healthcare professional directly involved in the client's care, which is within HIPAA guidelines.

4. While auscultating the anterior chest of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, a nurse listens to the audio clip of breath sounds through her stethoscope. What type of breath sounds does the nurse hear?

• A. Crackles
• B. Rhonchi
• C. Friction rub
• D. Normal breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Normal breath sounds. In the scenario described, the nurse hears normal bronchovesicular breath sounds, which are moderate in intensity and resemble blowing as air moves through the larger airways during inspiration and expiration. Crackles (choice A) are typically heard in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia and are not present in this case. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched, continuous sounds often associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis or bronchiectasis. Friction rub (choice C) is a grating sound usually heard in conditions like pleurisy or pericarditis, which is not the case here where normal breath sounds are heard.

5. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?

• A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
• B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
• C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
• D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.

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