Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria (PKU) need help and support in adhering to specific dietary restrictions. They ask the nurse, “How long will our child have to be on this diet?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. “We are still not sure; you should discuss this with your health care provider.”
• B. “If your baby does well, foods containing protein can gradually be introduced.”
• C. “Your child needs to be on this diet at least through adolescence and into adulthood.”
• D. “This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued.” Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder where the body cannot process phenylalanine properly. The diet for PKU must be continued lifelong to prevent cognitive and developmental issues, as phenylalanine buildup can cause irreversible damage. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should provide information about the lifelong nature of the dietary restrictions for PKU. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests reintroducing protein-containing foods, which is not recommended for individuals with PKU. Choice C is incorrect as it underestimates the duration of the necessary dietary restrictions for PKU.

2. Which of the following signs or symptoms is more common in children than adults following head trauma?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. altered mental status
• C. tachycardia and diaphoresis
• D. changes in pupillary reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are more common in children following head trauma due to their higher risk of increased intracranial pressure. Children have less skull compliance and higher brain water content, making them more susceptible to developing symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Altered mental status (choice B) can occur in both children and adults but is not more common in children. Tachycardia and diaphoresis (choice C) are nonspecific and can occur in both age groups. Changes in pupillary reaction (choice D) are not typically more common in children following head trauma compared to adults.

3. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.

4. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

5. A nurse plans to talk to the parents of a toddler about toilet training. What should the nurse explain is the most important factor in the process of toilet training?

• A. Parents’ attitude towards it
• B. Child’s motivation to remain dry
• C. Child’s ability to sit independently on the toilet
• D. Parents’ commitment to work on the toilet training

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial factor in successful toilet training is the parents' commitment to consistently work with their child. While parents' attitude and willingness are important, the key is their dedication to the process. The child's motivation and ability are also significant but rely heavily on parental guidance and support. Therefore, the correct choice is the parents' commitment to work on toilet training.

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