Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria (PKU) need help and support in adhering to specific dietary restrictions. They ask the nurse, “How long will our child have to be on this diet?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. “We are still not sure; you should discuss this with your health care provider.”
• B. “If your baby does well, foods containing protein can gradually be introduced.”
• C. “Your child needs to be on this diet at least through adolescence and into adulthood.”
• D. “This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued.” Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder where the body cannot process phenylalanine properly. The diet for PKU must be continued lifelong to prevent cognitive and developmental issues, as phenylalanine buildup can cause irreversible damage. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should provide information about the lifelong nature of the dietary restrictions for PKU. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests reintroducing protein-containing foods, which is not recommended for individuals with PKU. Choice C is incorrect as it underestimates the duration of the necessary dietary restrictions for PKU.

2. A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?

• A. Flat occiput
• B. Small, low-set ears
• C. Circumoral cyanosis
• D. Protruding furrowed tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform further assessment in a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome. This finding may indicate cardiac or respiratory issues, such as inadequate oxygenation. Small, low-set ears and a protruding furrowed tongue are common physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome and may not necessarily warrant immediate further assessment. A flat occiput is a normal variation in infant anatomy and is not typically a cause for immediate concern in this context.

3. Why should the nurse closely monitor the IV flow rate for a 5-month-old infant with severe diarrhea receiving IV fluids?

• A. Maintaining electrolyte balance
• B. Preventing dehydration
• C. Preventing fluid overload
• D. Avoiding cardiac overload

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In infants, monitoring IV flow rates is essential to prevent fluid overload, not cardiac overload. Excessive fluid administration can lead to complications such as pulmonary edema or congestive heart failure. It is crucial to maintain a balance between providing adequate hydration and avoiding fluid overload to prevent adverse outcomes. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary concern is to prevent complications related to excess fluid rather than focusing on electrolyte balance, dehydration prevention, or avoiding cardiac overload.

4. A child is admitted with extensive burns. The nurse notes burns on the child’s lips and singed nasal hairs. The nurse should suspect that the child has a(n)

• A. chemical burn
• B. inhalation injury
• C. electrical burn
• D. hot-water scald

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Burns on the lips and singed nasal hairs indicate inhalation injury, suggesting the child has inhaled hot gases or smoke. This presentation is common in cases where the respiratory tract is exposed to hot gases or smoke, leading to potential airway compromise. Choice A, chemical burn, is incorrect because there is no mention of exposure to chemicals, and the symptoms described are more indicative of inhalation injury. Choice C, electrical burn, is incorrect as there is no evidence of electrical involvement in the scenario provided. Choice D, hot-water scald, is incorrect because the presence of singed nasal hairs points more towards inhalation injury than a scald from hot water, emphasizing the need to prioritize airway management and respiratory support.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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