Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a child suffering from depression ask the nurse what causes depression in children. Which answer is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. The causes of major depression are unknown.
• B. Major affective disorders in parents increase depression in children.
• C. Boys are more likely than girls to be depressed.
• D. The prevalence rate is higher in prepubescent children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because while the exact causes of depression in children are not fully understood, research indicates that children are more likely to experience depression if their parents have a major affective disorder. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests that the causes of major depression are entirely unknown, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no conclusive evidence that boys are more likely than girls to be depressed. Choice D is incorrect as the prevalence rate of depression is not necessarily higher in prepubescent children specifically.

2. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Information for the parents including home care
• B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
• C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
• D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.

3. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor. What is the best advice the nurse can provide?

• A. Avoid high-fiber foods
• B. Use an odor-proof pouch
• C. Decrease fluid intake
• D. Increase dairy products in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best advice the nurse can provide to a client concerned about odor from a new colostomy is to use an odor-proof pouch. This option helps control odors effectively by containing and masking any unpleasant smells. Avoiding high-fiber foods (Choice A) is not the best advice as fiber is essential for bowel health, and decreasing fluid intake (Choice C) can lead to dehydration and other complications. Increasing dairy products in the diet (Choice D) is not directly related to controlling odors from a colostomy.

4. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high sodium
• C. High protein, high potassium
• D. Low protein, low sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

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