Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who had a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Hoarseness and weak voice
• B. Calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL (2.0 mmol/L)
• C. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• D. Difficulty swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing can indicate swelling or hematoma formation, which may compromise the airway and requires immediate intervention. Hoarseness and a weak voice are expected post-thyroidectomy due to manipulation of the laryngeal nerves but do not require immediate intervention. A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and may not require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 110 beats per minute may be elevated due to stress or pain postoperatively, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway.

2. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
• B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
• C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
• D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

3. Fluids are restricted to 1500 ml/day for a male client with AKI. He is frustrated and complaining of constant thirst, and the nurse discovers that the family is providing the client with additional fluids. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove all sources of liquids from the client's room
• B. Allow family to give the client a measured amount of ice chips
• C. Restrict family visiting until the client's condition is stable
• D. Provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth. This intervention helps alleviate the client's thirst without increasing fluid intake, which is essential in managing AKI. Removing all sources of liquids from the client's room (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of thirst and could lead to increased frustration. Allowing the family to give the client ice chips (Choice B) would add to the client's fluid intake, contradicting the restriction. Restricting family visiting (Choice C) is not necessary and does not directly address the client's thirst.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.

5. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.

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