HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse is obtaining the medical histories of new clients at a community-based primary care clinic. Which individual has the highest risk for experiencing elder abuse?
- A. A 69-year-old widowed female who lives alone and volunteers at a school
- B. A 95-year-old ambulatory male who resides in a nursing home in a small town
- C. A 78-year-old female on a fixed income who lives with her relatives
- D. An 81-year-old male with diabetes who lives with his wife of 52 years
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elder abuse risk is higher in individuals who live with relatives and are on a fixed income as these factors can contribute to vulnerability. Living with relatives may expose the individual to potential abusive situations within the family dynamics. Additionally, being on a fixed income may limit financial independence and increase dependency on others, potentially leading to financial abuse. The other options, such as living alone and volunteering, residing in a nursing home, or living with a long-term spouse, do not inherently pose the same level of risk factors for elder abuse as living with relatives on a fixed income.
2. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?
- A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
- B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
- C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
- D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.
3. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?
- A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
- B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
- C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
- D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.
4. An infant is receiving penicillin G procaine 220,000 units IM. The drug is supplied as 600,000 units/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 0.4
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose (220,000 units) / Dose on hand (600,000 units) x Volume of the available dose (1 ml). This results in 0.4 ml to be administered. Choice A is correct. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not provided.
5. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
- B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
- C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
- D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.
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