Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is obtaining the medical histories of new clients at a community-based primary care clinic. Which individual has the highest risk for experiencing elder abuse?

• A. A 69-year-old widowed female who lives alone and volunteers at a school
• B. A 95-year-old ambulatory male who resides in a nursing home in a small town
• C. A 78-year-old female on a fixed income who lives with her relatives
• D. An 81-year-old male with diabetes who lives with his wife of 52 years

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elder abuse risk is higher in individuals who live with relatives and are on a fixed income as these factors can contribute to vulnerability. Living with relatives may expose the individual to potential abusive situations within the family dynamics. Additionally, being on a fixed income may limit financial independence and increase dependency on others, potentially leading to financial abuse. The other options, such as living alone and volunteering, residing in a nursing home, or living with a long-term spouse, do not inherently pose the same level of risk factors for elder abuse as living with relatives on a fixed income.

2. Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?

• A. Decreased respiratory rate
• B. Increased temperature
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.

3. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

4. The client who is to avoid any weight-bearing on the left leg is using a 3-point crutch gait for ambulation. What is the best action for the nurse to initiate?

• A. Encourage continued use of the 3-point crutch gait by the client
• B. Encourage the client to use a wheelchair for mobility
• C. Instruct the client in the use of a 4-point crutch gait
• D. Instruct the client in the use of a 2-point crutch gait

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client needs to avoid weight-bearing on the left leg. A 4-point crutch gait involves using both crutches and both legs, making it more appropriate for weight-bearing restrictions. Encouraging the use of a 3-point gait (choice A) would not provide adequate support for the client's condition. While using a wheelchair (choice B) could be an option, instructing the client in a 4-point crutch gait would promote mobility while adhering to weight-bearing restrictions. A 2-point crutch gait (choice D) involves using both crutches and one leg, which is not suitable for avoiding weight-bearing on the left leg.

5. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
• B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
• C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
• D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

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