Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Record urine output every hour
• B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
• C. Evaluate neurological status
• D. Maintain seizure precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is associated with severe hypertension due to excessive catecholamine release. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the priority intervention to assess for hypertensive crises and prevent complications like stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. While recording urine output every hour, evaluating neurological status, and maintaining seizure precautions are important aspects of care, they are not the highest priority in a client with pheochromocytoma.

2. The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant’s record?

• A. Subtract vomitus from 120 ml Pedialyte, then document 95 ml oral intake.
• B. Compare the difference between the infant’s current weight and admission weight.
• C. Document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml.
• D. Calculate the difference in wet and dry diapers and document 80 ml urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.

3. A client prescribed warfarin is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I need to avoid foods high in vitamin C.''
• B. ''I should eat a consistent amount of vitamin K each day.''
• C. ''I can eat as many leafy greens as I want.''
• D. ''I should not worry about any changes in my diet.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Consistency in vitamin K intake is crucial for clients on warfarin to maintain stable anticoagulation levels. Option A is incorrect as vitamin C does not directly interact with warfarin. Option C is incorrect because although leafy greens are high in vitamin K, excessive consumption can affect warfarin's effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as any changes in diet, particularly in vitamin K intake, can impact the efficacy of warfarin.

4. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out.” The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Splitting
• C. Projection
• D. Rationalization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is projecting his feelings of anger and frustration onto his roommate, attributing his own feelings to the other person. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their thoughts, feelings, or motives onto another person. In this scenario, the client is displacing his anger onto his roommate, thereby using projection as a defense mechanism. Denial (choice A) is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Splitting (choice B) involves viewing people as all good or all bad. Rationalization (choice D) is creating logical explanations to justify unacceptable behavior.

5. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
• B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
• C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
• D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.

Similar Questions