Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Record urine output every hour
• B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
• C. Evaluate neurological status
• D. Maintain seizure precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is associated with severe hypertension due to excessive catecholamine release. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the priority intervention to assess for hypertensive crises and prevent complications like stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. While recording urine output every hour, evaluating neurological status, and maintaining seizure precautions are important aspects of care, they are not the highest priority in a client with pheochromocytoma.

2. The parents of a child who had surgical repair of a myelomeningocele are being taught how to change an occlusive dressing on the child’s back. Which statement by the parents indicates that they understand this procedure?

• A. When changing the dressing, the tape should be removed slowly to prevent trauma to the skin
• B. To prevent infection, the dressing should be kept dry to avoid excess moisture
• C. The skin incision should be kept moist to promote healing and prevent dryness
• D. The incision should be protected from fecal contamination by an intact dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because protecting the incision from fecal contamination is essential to prevent infection and promote healing in a child with a myelomeningocele. This is crucial as fecal matter can introduce harmful bacteria to the wound. Choice A is incorrect as removing the tape slowly to prevent trauma to the skin is a general guideline but not specific to preventing infection. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the dressing dry can lead to complications as the wound needs a moist environment to heal properly. Choice C is incorrect as keeping the skin incision moist may promote infection and delay healing, making it an incorrect statement for postoperative care.

3. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad.' In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Feed the client a snack
• B. Empty the urinary drainage bag
• C. Offer the client oral fluids
• D. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure, if left uncontrolled, significantly increases the risk of stroke secondary to hemorrhage and other cardiovascular events. This condition can lead to serious complications due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the potential pathophysiological consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and are not the primary concern in this scenario.

4. A client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) receives a prescription for metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO twice daily. What information should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Take an additional dose for signs of hyperglycemia
• B. Recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
• C. Report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider.
• D. Use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Metformin does not require additional doses for hyperglycemia, and sliding scale insulin is not typically used with metformin. It is important for the client to recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider, and take the medication with meals. Teaching the client to use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation is not appropriate in this case because metformin is the prescribed medication, and its mechanism of action differs from insulin therapy. The client should be educated on the importance of taking metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and to report any persistent polyuria, which could indicate poor blood sugar control.

5. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

• A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
• B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
• D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

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