Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Record urine output every hour
• B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
• C. Evaluate neurological status
• D. Maintain seizure precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is associated with severe hypertension due to excessive catecholamine release. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the priority intervention to assess for hypertensive crises and prevent complications like stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. While recording urine output every hour, evaluating neurological status, and maintaining seizure precautions are important aspects of care, they are not the highest priority in a client with pheochromocytoma.

2. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.

3. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with Addison's disease who is weak, dizzy, disoriented, and has dry oral mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and sunken eyes. Vital signs are blood pressure 94/44, heart rate 123 beats/minute, respiration 22 breaths/minute. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assess extremity strength and resistance
• B. Report a sodium level of 132 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI units)
• C. Measure and record the cardiac QRS complex
• D. Check current finger stick glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client’s symptoms suggest possible adrenal crisis or hypoglycemia. Checking glucose is a priority to rule out hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention. The client is presenting with symptoms indicative of hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Assessing extremity strength, reporting sodium levels, or measuring the cardiac QRS complex are not the most urgent actions in this scenario.

5. To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Percussion of abdomen
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.

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