HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
- B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
- C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
- D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.
2. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Patch one eye.
- B. Reorient often.
- C. Range of motion.
- D. Evaluate swallow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.
3. A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the current treatment plan with the client
- B. Inform the healthcare provider about the client’s behaviors
- C. Determine if the client has PRN medication for anxiety
- D. Explore the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Exploring the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.
4. When assessing a client's blood pressure and determining an auscultatory gap, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Compare the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure
- B. Assess the client for lightheadedness upon standing
- C. Determine if an automated blood pressure reading is consistent with the manual reading
- D. Observe for changes in blood pressure between lying and sitting positions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When an auscultatory gap is present, comparing the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure is crucial. This helps to accurately measure blood pressure and detect any discrepancies caused by the gap. Assessing for lightheadedness upon standing (choice B) is unrelated to addressing an auscultatory gap. Checking the consistency between automated and manual blood pressure readings (choice C) is important for validation but not specifically for managing an auscultatory gap. Observing blood pressure changes between lying and sitting positions (choice D) is relevant for orthostatic hypotension assessment but not for dealing with an auscultatory gap.
5. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to contracting lead poisoning?
- A. An adolescent who works part-time in a paint factory
- B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging outdoor playground equipment
- C. A 10-year-old who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- D. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Children playing on aging playground equipment are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to potential exposure from old paint. This is because deteriorating paint on older playground equipment may contain lead, which can be ingested by young children. Choices A, C, and D do not directly involve potential exposure to lead paint, making them less susceptible to lead poisoning compared to a child playing on aging playground equipment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access