HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. After learning that she has terminal pancreatic cancer, a female client becomes very angry and says to the nurse, 'God has abandoned me. What did I do to deserve this?' Based on this response, the nurse decides to include which nursing problem in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Ineffective coping
- B. Spiritual distress
- C. Acute pain
- D. Complicated grieving
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client’s expression of feeling abandoned by God indicates spiritual distress, which is a significant issue that needs to be addressed in the plan of care. The individual is questioning their faith and seeking answers in a higher power, which aligns with spiritual distress. Choices A, C, and D are not as directly related to the client's current emotional and spiritual struggle. Ineffective coping may be a consequence of spiritual distress, acute pain is not the primary concern in this scenario, and complicated grieving is premature as the client is still processing the diagnosis and seeking meaning.
2. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?
- A. Use stool softeners regularly
- B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
- C. Maintain a low-fat diet
- D. Do not use aspirin products
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.
3. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
- B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
- C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
- D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.
4. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with tetanus?
- A. Open window shades to provide natural light
- B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
- C. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room
- D. Reposition from side to side every hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with tetanus is to minimize the amount of stimuli in the room. Tetanus can lead to muscle spasms and heightened sensitivity to stimuli, making it essential to reduce environmental triggers for the patient's comfort and safety. Opening window shades for natural light (Choice A) may exacerbate sensitivity to light and worsen symptoms. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (Choice B) is not directly related to managing tetanus symptoms. While repositioning the patient every hour (Choice D) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, it is not the priority when managing tetanus, which requires a quiet, low-stimulus environment to minimize muscle spasms and discomfort.
5. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer an oral analgesic with antiemetic
- B. Collect blood for coagulation times
- C. Send the client for a computed tomography scan of the brain
- D. Obtain a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access