HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Study Guide
1. The nurse-manager is planning to transform safety ideas into prevention and protection strategies in the workplace. What committee should review and plan policies and education about safety in the workplace?
- A. policy and procedures committee
- B. quality assurance committee
- C. education committee
- D. ethics committee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The quality assurance committee is responsible for reviewing and planning policies and education related to workplace safety. This committee focuses on ensuring the quality of care and services provided, which includes implementing safety measures. The policy and procedures committee primarily deals with developing and maintaining organizational policies and procedures. The education committee focuses on educational programs and initiatives, not specifically on safety policies. The ethics committee is concerned with ethical issues and dilemmas, not safety policies and education.
2. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?
- A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
- B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
- C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
- D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.
3. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of communicable diseases in a community?
- A. Regular health check-ups
- B. Isolation of infected individuals
- C. Immunization programs
- D. Public health education
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Immunization programs are the most effective way to prevent the spread of communicable diseases. Vaccinations help build immunity against specific diseases, reducing the likelihood of an outbreak. Regular health check-ups (Choice A) are important for individual health but do not directly prevent the spread of diseases on a community level. Isolation of infected individuals (Choice B) is a containment measure rather than prevention for the entire community. Public health education (Choice D) is valuable in raising awareness but may not be as effective as immunization programs in directly preventing the spread of communicable diseases.
4. The nurse is teaching a 27-year-old client with asthma about the management of their therapeutic regimen. Which statement would indicate the need for additional instruction?
- A. ''I should monitor my peak flow every day.''
- B. ''I should contact the clinic if I am using my medication more often.''
- C. ''I need to limit my exercise, especially activities such as walking and running.''
- D. ''I should learn stress reduction and relaxation techniques.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Exercise, especially aerobic activities, is beneficial for clients with asthma as long as it is well-managed. Limiting exercise is not generally recommended unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider, indicating a need for further instruction in this case. Monitoring peak flow, contacting the clinic for increased medication use, and learning stress reduction techniques are all appropriate self-management strategies for asthma, indicating good understanding by the client.
5. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Constipation
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.
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