Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is caring for a group of families. The nurse should identify which of the following families is experiencing a maturational loss?

• A. A family whose only child recently died due to cancer.
• B. A family whose head of household lost her job.
• C. A family whose house was destroyed in a fire.
• D. A family whose oldest child is moving away for college.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because maturational loss is related to developmental changes, such as children leaving for college. This type of loss is tied to the normal life transitions of individuals and can lead to feelings of grief and adjustment. Choices A, B, and C represent different types of losses. Choice A involves a traumatic loss of a child due to illness, choice B involves a financial loss impacting the head of household's job, and choice C involves a material loss due to a fire incident. While these losses are significant, they do not specifically relate to maturational loss, which is associated with expected life stage transitions.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
• D. Provide a high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

3. A client who is postoperative has paralytic ileus. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?

• A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain
• C. Normal bowel sounds with cramping
• D. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paralytic ileus is a condition where there is a temporary paralysis of the bowel, leading to absent bowel sounds and abdominal distention. This occurs because the bowel is not functioning properly to propel contents, resulting in a lack of bowel sounds. Absent bowel sounds with distention are typical findings in paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain are more indicative of increased motility and are not expected in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds with cramping may be seen in other conditions, such as gastroenteritis. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness are not typical findings in paralytic ileus.

4. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
• B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
• C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
• D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
• B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
• C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
• D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

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