HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
- A. If the client has any metal implants
- B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
- C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
- D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
2. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer a high-flow oxygen mask.
- B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Provide a high-carbohydrate diet.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing by reducing respiratory effort. Administering a high-flow oxygen mask (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Providing a high-carbohydrate diet (Choice C) is not directly related to managing acute shortness of breath in COPD. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice D) is helpful for airway clearance but is not the priority intervention when the client is in distress with acute shortness of breath.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone a thoracentesis. Which finding should be reported immediately?
- A. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
- B. Pain at the procedure site.
- C. Blood-tinged sputum.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Shortness of breath should be reported immediately as it may indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication of thoracentesis. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side, pain at the procedure site, and blood-tinged sputum are common findings post-thoracentesis and do not necessarily indicate immediate complications like a pneumothorax.
5. The nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has a yellowish tint to the skin. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Reassure the parents that this is normal
- B. Monitor the infant's bilirubin levels
- C. Increase the frequency of feedings
- D. Administer phototherapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a newborn presents with a yellowish tint to the skin, it can indicate jaundice, which is caused by elevated bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's bilirubin levels is crucial to assess the severity of jaundice and determine the need for further intervention. Reassuring the parents without proper assessment could lead to delayed treatment if jaundice is present. Increasing the frequency of feedings may not address the underlying cause of jaundice. Administering phototherapy is a treatment option that should be based on bilirubin level assessment and healthcare provider's recommendation.
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