HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
- A. If the client has any metal implants
- B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
- C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
- D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Ventrogluteal muscle
- D. Abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
3. What is the primary purpose of a chest tube in a client's care?
- A. To drain air and fluid from the pleural space
- B. To prevent infection in the thoracic cavity
- C. To assist with lung expansion
- D. To monitor intrathoracic pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To drain air and fluid from the pleural space. A chest tube is primarily used to remove accumulated air or fluid in the pleural space, preventing lung collapse or compromise of lung function. This intervention aims to re-expand the lung and enhance respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because preventing infection is not the primary purpose of a chest tube. Choice C is incorrect as lung expansion is a result of draining the pleural space, not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring intrathoracic pressure is not the main objective of a chest tube insertion.
4. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?
- A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
- B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
- C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
- D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.
5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?
- A. Administration of IV diuretics
- B. Oxygen therapy
- C. Bed rest
- D. Dietary consultation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access