Nursing Elites

1. Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?

• A. Presence of a neural tube defect.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Gender of the fetus.
• D. Fetal lung maturity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.

2. Is Duchenne muscular dystrophy a sex-linked abnormality?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affecting males. This is due to the inheritance of the mutated gene on the X chromosome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is specifically classified as a sex-linked disorder affecting males due to the inheritance pattern.

3. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Clindamycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

4. During which of the following periods does the development of arms and legs occur in a pregnancy?

• A. Development of the lungs
• B. Development of the heart
• C. Development of arms and legs
• D. Development of the stomach

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The development of arms and legs occurs during the critical period of the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial for the formation of limbs and other key body parts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the development of the lungs, heart, and stomach respectively occurs at different stages of fetal development and is not primarily associated with the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy.

5. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

• A. A chromosomal abnormality.
• B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
• C. A recessive gene.
• D. A decrease in estrogen levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

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