Nursing Elites

1. Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?

• A. Presence of a neural tube defect.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Gender of the fetus.
• D. Fetal lung maturity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.

2. A client is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a snug dressing on the client’s nipple when not breastfeeding
• B. Ensure the newborn’s mouth is wide open before latching to the breast
• C. Encourage the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast
• D. Instruct the client to begin the feeding with the nipple that is most tender

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ensuring the newborn's mouth is wide open before latching is crucial for achieving a proper latch, which can help reduce nipple soreness. Placing a snug dressing on the nipple when not breastfeeding (choice A) can lead to further irritation and hinder healing. Encouraging the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast (choice C) may not be adequate for effective feeding as infants should feed until they are satisfied. Instructing the client to begin feeding with the most tender nipple (choice D) can worsen the soreness as it may not allow the baby to feed effectively.

3. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?

• A. Stimulates crying and lung expansion.
• B. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface.
• C. Reduces heat loss from evaporation.
• D. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.

4. A client in labor requests nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following nursing actions promotes client comfort?

• A. Assisting the client into a squatting position
• B. Having the client lie in a supine position
• C. Applying fundal pressure during contractions
• D. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client into a squatting position promotes comfort during labor. This position can help relieve pain by utilizing gravity, allowing the pelvic outlet to widen, and potentially facilitating the progress of labor. Lying in a supine position (Choice B) can hinder labor progression and increase discomfort. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can be inappropriate and may cause harm as it is not routinely recommended during labor. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours (Choice D) is important for bladder management but does not directly address pain relief during labor.

5. Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?

• A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
• B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
• C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
• D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.

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