Nursing Elites

1. Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?

• A. Presence of a neural tube defect.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Gender of the fetus.
• D. Fetal lung maturity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.

2. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

• A. A chromosomal abnormality.
• B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
• C. A recessive gene.
• D. A decrease in estrogen levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

3. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Urine Ketones
• B. Rapid plasma reagin
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Urine culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?

• A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
• B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
• C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
• D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.

5. What determines a child’s sex?

• A. Presence of teratogens at the time of conception.
• B. Sex chromosome received from the mother.
• C. Presence of teratogens at the time of ovulation.
• D. Sex chromosome received from the father.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the sex chromosome received from the father. The father contributes either an X or Y chromosome, which determines the child's sex. This occurs at the moment of fertilization when the sperm carrying either an X (resulting in a female) or Y (resulting in a male) chromosome fertilizes the egg. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the presence of teratogens at the time of conception or ovulation does not determine the child's sex. While the sex chromosome received from the mother is important, it is the father's contribution that ultimately determines the child's sex.

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