Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is receiving a report for a laboring client who arrived in the emergency center with ruptured membranes that the client did not recognize. Which is the priority nursing action to implement when the client is admitted to the labor and delivery suite?

• A. Begin a pad count
• B. Prepare to start an IV
• C. Take the client's temperature
• D. Monitor amniotic fluid for meconium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client with ruptured membranes is admitted to the labor and delivery suite is to take the client's temperature. This is crucial to assess for infection, especially when the duration of membrane rupture is unknown. Beginning a pad count, preparing to start an IV, and monitoring amniotic fluid for meconium are important actions but are not as immediate or critical as assessing for infection through temperature measurement.

2. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?

• A. Pneumococcal
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Human papillomavirus
• D. Rubella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.

3. _______ is a genetic disorder in which blood does not clot properly.

• A. Cystic fibrosis
• B. Hemophilia
• C. Lymphoma
• D. Huntington’s disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in blood clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, not blood clotting. Lymphoma is a type of cancer originating in the lymphatic system and is not related to blood clotting abnormalities. Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects a person's ability to move, think, and behave.

4. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:

• A. monozygotic (MZ) twins.
• B. fraternal twins.
• C. non-identical twins.
• D. dizygotic (DZ) twins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.

5. A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Provide a calm environment
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels every hour
• C. Initiate seizure precautions
• D. Place the infant on their back with legs extended

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating seizure precautions is crucial when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome due to the increased risk of seizures. Providing a calm environment (Choice A) is important to reduce stimulation as these infants may be irritable. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is not typically a priority in neonatal abstinence syndrome unless specific signs or symptoms suggest the need for this assessment. Placing the infant on their back with legs extended (Choice D) does not directly address the potential complications associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome, such as seizures.

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