Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is receiving a report for a laboring client who arrived in the emergency center with ruptured membranes that the client did not recognize. Which is the priority nursing action to implement when the client is admitted to the labor and delivery suite?

• A. Begin a pad count
• B. Prepare to start an IV
• C. Take the client's temperature
• D. Monitor amniotic fluid for meconium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client with ruptured membranes is admitted to the labor and delivery suite is to take the client's temperature. This is crucial to assess for infection, especially when the duration of membrane rupture is unknown. Beginning a pad count, preparing to start an IV, and monitoring amniotic fluid for meconium are important actions but are not as immediate or critical as assessing for infection through temperature measurement.

2. Which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is most important for the nurse to understand?

• A. Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor.
• B. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms.
• C. Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework, shopping, and exercise.
• D. Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Class II cardiac disease is symptomatic with ordinary activity. Women in this category need to avoid heavy exertion and limit regular activities as symptoms dictate. Stress is greatest between weeks 28 and 32 of gestation, when hemodynamic changes reach their maximum. Class III cardiac disease is symptomatic with less-than-ordinary activity. These women need bed rest most of the day and face the possibility of hospitalization near term. Class I cardiac disease is asymptomatic at normal levels of activity. These women can perform limited normal activities with discretion, although they still need a good amount of sleep.

3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Vulvar Lesions
• D. Malodorous Discharge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

4. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

5. Most victims of _____ die of respiratory infections in their 20s.

• A. Tay-Sachs disease
• B. cystic fibrosis
• C. Turner syndrome
• D. Klinefelter syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a genetic disorder that causes mucus to be thick and sticky, leading to blockages in the lungs and digestive system. This mucus buildup makes them more susceptible to severe respiratory infections, which can ultimately result in premature death in their 20s. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system, not typically causing respiratory infections. Turner syndrome (Choice C) and Klinefelter syndrome (Choice D) are chromosomal disorders that do not directly lead to the respiratory issues observed in cystic fibrosis.

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