the nurse is receiving a report for a laboring client who arrived in the emergency center with ruptured membranes that the client did not recognize wh
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. The nurse is receiving a report for a laboring client who arrived in the emergency center with ruptured membranes that the client did not recognize. Which is the priority nursing action to implement when the client is admitted to the labor and delivery suite?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client with ruptured membranes is admitted to the labor and delivery suite is to take the client's temperature. This is crucial to assess for infection, especially when the duration of membrane rupture is unknown. Beginning a pad count, preparing to start an IV, and monitoring amniotic fluid for meconium are important actions but are not as immediate or critical as assessing for infection through temperature measurement.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.

3. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

4. In the prenatal record, the nurse should record for the pregnant client who has a 3-year-old child at home, a term birth, a miscarriage at 10 weeks’ gestation, and a set of twins who died within 24 hours:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gravida 4, para 2.' Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. In this case, the client has been pregnant a total of 4 times, so gravida is 4. Para is the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, which is 2 in this case. The client has had a term birth and a set of twins who died within 24 hours, totaling 2 pregnancies that reached viability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the client's obstetric history based on the information provided.

5. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

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