HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?
- A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
- B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
- C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
- D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.
2. The caregiver is teaching parents about accidental poisoning in children. Which point should be emphasized?
- A. Call the Poison Control Center as soon as the situation is identified
- B. Empty the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning
- C. Have the child move minimally if a toxic substance was inhaled
- D. Do not induce vomiting if the poison is a hydrocarbon
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize emptying the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning. This action is crucial to prevent further ingestion of the poisonous substance. Choice A is incorrect because calling the Poison Control Center should be one of the first steps, not waiting until the situation is identified. Choice C is incorrect as moving the child may spread or exacerbate the effects of the toxic substance. Choice D is incorrect because inducing vomiting can be harmful if the poison is a hydrocarbon, as it may lead to aspiration.
3. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.
- A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
- B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
- C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
- D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.
4. When planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Insert the catheter at a 45° angle
- B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position
- C. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
- D. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the client's arm in a dependent position is the correct action when inserting a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. This position helps veins dilate due to gravity, facilitating easier insertion of the IV catheter. Choice A is incorrect because catheters are typically inserted at a lower angle, around 10-30 degrees. Choice C is unnecessary unless excessive hair impedes the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as veins in the hand are generally smaller and more prone to complications, making them less ideal for IV therapy in older adults.
5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
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