Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the signed operative consent with a client who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the permit should include...

• A. Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern
• B. Have the client sign a new surgical permit
• C. Add the client’s concern to the permit
• D. Inform the surgeon about the client’s concern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action is to inform the surgeon about the client's concern. This action ensures that the surgeon is aware of the client's specific request or concern related to the procedure. By directly involving the surgeon, the client's preferences or needs can be addressed effectively, potentially avoiding any misunderstanding or dissatisfaction. Choice A has been corrected to 'Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern' as the operating room staff may not have the authority to make changes to the permit. Having the client sign a new surgical permit (Choice B) may not be necessary if the concern can be addressed by informing the surgeon, making Choice B less efficient. Adding the client’s concern to the permit (Choice C) without consulting the surgeon may not align with the standard procedure and could lead to confusion or legal issues if the surgeon is not aware of the client’s specific requests.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare provider to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous heparin injections. The abdomen has a layer of subcutaneous fat and a good blood supply, making it an ideal site for subcutaneous injections. Using the deltoid muscle for heparin injections is not appropriate as it is typically used for intramuscular injections. The ventrogluteal site is more suitable for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve.

5. An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?

• A. Examine the elbow
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Apply a warm compress to the elbow
• D. Assess the client’s range of motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate initial action for the nurse is to examine the elbow. This step is crucial to assess the site of pain, identify any visible signs of injury or inflammation, and determine the cause of the discomfort. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should come after a thorough assessment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) might provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Assessing the client’s range of motion (Choice D) is important but would come after the initial examination to further evaluate the elbow joint.

Similar Questions