Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Increase in hematocrit
• B. Increase in respiratory rate
• C. Decrease in heart rate
• D. Decrease in capillary refill time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

4. A middle adult client tells the nurse, 'I feel so useless now that my children do not need me anymore.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. People in middle adulthood often find satisfaction in nurturing and guiding young people.
• B. It's normal to feel this way; it will pass.
• C. You should focus on finding new activities to fill your time.
• D. Your children will always need you in some way.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A. Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals often experience generativity, finding fulfillment in guiding and nurturing others. By acknowledging this aspect, the nurse can help the client explore opportunities to engage in activities that provide a sense of purpose and satisfaction. Choice A validates the client's feelings and offers a constructive way to address them. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional need for purpose and may not encourage the client to seek meaningful ways to address their feelings of uselessness.

5. A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment for a client who reports abdominal pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform deep palpation at the end of the admission assessment
• B. Auscultate the client’s abdomen before palpation
• C. Begin palpation of the abdomen at the site of pain
• D. Assess the client’s bowel sounds using the bell of the stethoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating the abdomen before palpation is the correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario. This approach helps to assess bowel sounds accurately and prevents the alteration of bowel sounds that can occur due to palpation. By auscultating first, the nurse can gather important information about bowel function before proceeding with the palpation. Choice A is incorrect because deep palpation should be avoided initially, especially in a client reporting abdominal pain, as it may cause discomfort or potential harm. Choice C is incorrect as palpation should typically start away from the site of pain to prevent exacerbating discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because assessing bowel sounds with the bell of the stethoscope is not the initial step recommended when a client reports abdominal pain; auscultation should be performed with the diaphragm of the stethoscope first.

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