Nursing Elites

1. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
• B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
• C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
• D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

2. What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?

• A. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes
• B. Long-term chemotherapy
• C. Nutritional supplements to enhance blood cell production
• D. Blood transfusions to replace ineffective red cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.

3. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?

• A. Nuchal rigidity
• B. Carotid bruit
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Palpable cervical lymph node

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.

4. The cognitive impairment is classified into four levels based on the intelligence quotient (IQ). How is a child with an IQ of 45 classified?

• A. Within the normal low range
• B. Educable
• C. Trainable
• D. Severe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A child with an IQ of 45 is classified as 'Trainable' in the context of cognitive impairment levels. This category is determined by an IQ range of 35 to 55. Choice A ('Within the normal low range') is incorrect as an IQ of 45 falls within the range associated with the 'Trainable' level, not the 'Normal low range.' Choice B ('Educable') is incorrect because this classification typically corresponds to individuals with slightly higher IQs that allow for academic progress with support. Choice D ('Severe') is incorrect as it does not align with the IQ level of 45, which falls within the 'Trainable' category.

5. While planning care for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome, the nurse identifies a collaborative problem of pain. What is the etiology of this problem?

• A. Irritation of nerve endings
• B. Diminished blood flow
• C. Ischemic tissue changes
• D. Compression of a nerve

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compression of a nerve. In carpal tunnel syndrome, pain arises from the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel. This compression leads to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and arm. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because carpal tunnel syndrome pain is primarily caused by the physical compression of the nerve, rather than irritation of nerve endings, diminished blood flow, or ischemic tissue changes.

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