Nursing Elites

1. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.

2. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

• A. Prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. Supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client:

• A. Is unable to swallow foods by mouth
• B. Has a gastrointestinal obstruction
• C. Requires additional caloric intake to support healing
• D. Is at risk for aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Is unable to swallow foods by mouth.' Tube feeding is prescribed when a client is unable to safely swallow food by mouth but has a functional gastrointestinal tract. Option B, 'Has a gastrointestinal obstruction,' is incorrect as tube feeding is not typically prescribed for this reason. Option C, 'Requires additional caloric intake to support healing,' is incorrect because tube feeding is specifically for clients who are unable to swallow. Option D, 'Is at risk for aspiration,' is also incorrect as tube feeding would not be the primary intervention for aspiration risk; other strategies to reduce aspiration risk would be implemented instead.

4. A client with brain cancer is transferring to hospice care. The client's son tells the nurse, 'I don’t know what to tell my dad if he asks how he is going to die.' Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. “Let’s talk more about your dad’s condition.”
• B. “The social worker will help you answer those questions.”
• C. “I think that you should discuss this with the hospice nurse.”
• D. “Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choosing option D, 'Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can,' is the most appropriate response by the nurse. This response shows empathy and compassion towards the client and their family during this difficult transition. The focus on supporting the client in enjoying their remaining time reflects a holistic approach to care. Options A, B, and C are not the best responses in this situation. Option A could lead to unnecessary details that might be overwhelming for the family. Option B shifts the responsibility to the social worker without providing immediate support. Option C deflects the son's concerns to another healthcare professional when emotional support is needed.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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