Nursing Elites

1. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.

2. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?

• A. Risk for aspiration
• B. Impaired physical mobility
• C. Disturbed sensory perception
• D. Interrupted family processes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.

3. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

4. A healthcare professional is providing teaching to a client who had a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the professional include?

• A. Urticaria
• B. Ptosis
• C. Nausea
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. It presents as raised, red, itchy welts on the skin. Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Nausea is a gastrointestinal symptom that can occur with various conditions but is not specific to allergic reactions. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.

5. In a client with liver cirrhosis, which symptom would be most concerning during assessment?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Ascites
• C. Hepatomegaly
• D. Altered mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Altered mental status would be the most concerning symptom in a client with liver cirrhosis. It may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While jaundice, ascites, and hepatomegaly are common in liver cirrhosis, they do not directly correlate with the urgency and severity of hepatic encephalopathy as altered mental status does. Therefore, altered mental status takes priority for immediate attention and intervention.

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