the nurse is providing care for a client with a draining postoperative wound infected with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus mrsa which is t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with a draining postoperative wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering prescribed antibiotics is crucial in treating MRSA infections. MRSA is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics, including methicillin. Therefore, prompt administration of the appropriate antibiotics is essential to target the MRSA infection effectively. Encouraging increased oral fluids (Choice A) and providing high-protein snacks (Choice B) may be beneficial for overall recovery but are not the most important actions in treating an MRSA infection. Changing the wound dressing (Choice C) is important for wound care but does not directly address the infection caused by MRSA.

2. The nurse notes that a postoperative client's wound site is red and slightly swollen. What is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the surgeon. Redness and swelling at a wound site can indicate an infection, which may require medical intervention. Applying an ice pack (choice A) is not appropriate without further assessment. While documenting the findings and monitoring (choice B) is important, it should be accompanied by notifying the surgeon for further evaluation. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (choice D) may not be sufficient if an infection is present, so immediate communication with the surgeon is crucial.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the phenytoin level is crucial to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium level is important in clients receiving lithium, not phenytoin. Hemoglobin level and white blood cell count are not directly related to phenytoin therapy monitoring.

4. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

5. A client with a history of chronic back pain is prescribed oxycodone for pain management. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately.' Respiratory depression is a severe side effect of opioids like oxycodone and can be life-threatening. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs such as slow or shallow breathing, difficulty breathing, or confusion. Choice A is incorrect as taking oxycodone with or without food does not significantly affect its efficacy. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding driving is important due to the potential impairment caused by oxycodone, but reporting respiratory depression is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as increasing physical activity may not always be suitable for individuals with chronic back pain and is not directly related to preventing respiratory depression.

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