HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin to a client with a history of congestive heart failure, the nurse must assess the client's heart rate. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the heart rate is crucial to prevent potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important assessments but are not as directly influenced by digoxin as heart rate is in this scenario. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors, including dehydration or other medications. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are more related to respiratory function and gas exchange, which are not the primary concerns when administering digoxin to a client with heart failure.
2. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Encourage fluid intake
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently
- D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering insulin is the priority nursing action for a client admitted with hyperglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels and prevent further complications associated with hyperglycemia. Encouraging fluid intake is important but not the priority as insulin administration takes precedence to address the immediate hyperglycemic state. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is essential but comes after administering insulin to ensure the treatment's effectiveness. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is incorrect as the client is admitted with hyperglycemia, which requires raising blood glucose levels, not lowering them further.
4. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?
- A. Engage the client in a quiet activity
- B. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimulation
- C. Monitor the client continuously
- D. Adjust the lighting and noise levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience sensory overload and agitation. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimulation is the most appropriate initial intervention as it can help reduce overwhelming sensory input and promote a sense of calm. Engaging the client in a quiet activity (Choice A) may not be effective if the environment is still overstimulating. Continuous monitoring (Choice C) is important but may not be the first intervention needed. Adjusting lighting and noise levels (Choice D) can be helpful but may not address the core issue of sensory overload and agitation during a manic episode.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. To lower blood pressure
- B. To improve appetite
- C. To increase red blood cell production
- D. To reduce fluid retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.
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