Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin to a client with a history of congestive heart failure, the nurse must assess the client's heart rate. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the heart rate is crucial to prevent potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important assessments but are not as directly influenced by digoxin as heart rate is in this scenario. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors, including dehydration or other medications. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are more related to respiratory function and gas exchange, which are not the primary concerns when administering digoxin to a client with heart failure.

2. Before administration of a stat dose of potassium chloride IV for a client with hypokalemia, what is the most important action for the nurse?

• A. Ensure the IV is flowing freely
• B. Mix the medication thoroughly
• C. Check the client’s electrolyte levels
• D. Obtain a baseline ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse before administering a stat dose of potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to ensure the IV is flowing freely. A freely flowing IV is essential to safely and effectively deliver potassium chloride, helping to prevent infusion-related issues. Checking the client's electrolyte levels or obtaining a baseline ECG may be important but are not the most critical actions before administering the medication. Mixing the medication thoroughly is not applicable in this scenario as potassium chloride is typically provided ready to use.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

4. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height at 26 weeks gestation. What should the fundal height be?

• A. Approximately 26 cm
• B. Between 24 to 28 cm
• C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
• D. Below the xiphoid process

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Between 24 to 28 cm.' Fundal height is expected to be approximately equal to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks, the fundal height should typically range between 24 to 28 cm. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height is not an exact measurement of gestational age in centimeters. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a general description above the umbilicus, which is not specific to 26 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect as the fundal height would not reach below the xiphoid process at 26 weeks gestation.

5. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

• A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
• B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
• C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
• D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

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