Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin to a client with a history of congestive heart failure, the nurse must assess the client's heart rate. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the heart rate is crucial to prevent potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important assessments but are not as directly influenced by digoxin as heart rate is in this scenario. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors, including dehydration or other medications. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are more related to respiratory function and gas exchange, which are not the primary concerns when administering digoxin to a client with heart failure.

2. How should the nurse respond to an older male client who states that his religion does not permit him to bathe daily?

• A. Review the importance of hygienic measures for improved health
• B. State that the healthcare provider has prescribed a bath today
• C. Offer the client several choices of times to bathe during the day
• D. Request that the client clarify his religious beliefs about bathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to offer the client several choices of times to bathe during the day. This approach respects the client's religious beliefs while ensuring that hygienic practices are still maintained. By providing options, the nurse can work together with the client to find a solution that aligns with both his beliefs and his health needs. Choice A is incorrect because solely reviewing the importance of hygiene may not address the client's specific religious concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it disregards the client's beliefs and autonomy. Choice D is not the best approach as it may come off as confrontational or dismissive of the client's beliefs, rather than working collaboratively to find a suitable solution.

3. The client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?

• A. Increase the intake of spicy foods
• B. Avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
• C. Drink coffee in moderation
• D. Eat large meals at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with newly diagnosed PUD about lifestyle modifications is to avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease by causing further irritation of the gastric mucosa. Increasing the intake of spicy foods (choice A) can aggravate the condition by irritating the stomach lining. Drinking coffee (choice C) can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the symptoms of PUD. Eating large meals at bedtime (choice D) can also exacerbate PUD by increasing gastric acid production when the body is at rest, potentially leading to discomfort and symptoms.

4. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?

• A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
• B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
• C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
• D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

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