HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack
- C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously
- D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.
2. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
3. The client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about lifestyle changes. Which recommendation is most important to include?
- A. Increase sodium intake.
- B. Engage in regular physical activity.
- C. Avoid foods high in fat.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is crucial for individuals with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure and improve cardiovascular health. Physical activity is known to have a significant impact on reducing hypertension and overall cardiovascular risk. Choice A, increasing sodium intake, is incorrect as reducing sodium is typically recommended for hypertension to help lower blood pressure. Choice C, avoiding foods high in fat, is beneficial for overall health but not the most crucial recommendation for hypertension management. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not a standard recommendation for hypertension unless advised by a healthcare provider for specific cases. Therefore, the most important recommendation for the client with hypertension is to engage in regular physical activity.
4. A client complains of pain at the IV site. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the site is warm, red, and swollen. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
- A. Phlebitis
- B. Infiltration
- C. Allergic reaction
- D. Fluid overload
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Phlebitis. Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein, often caused by irritation from an IV catheter, resulting in warmth, redness, and swelling at the site. Infiltration (choice B) refers to the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and pallor, not redness and warmth like in the scenario described. An allergic reaction (choice C) would present with itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, rather than localized warmth, redness, and swelling. Fluid overload (choice D) typically manifests as generalized edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain, not localized symptoms at the IV site.
5. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. After 2 weeks of antidepressant medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving her belongings away to her visitors, and is in an overall better mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective
- D. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. Sudden mood improvements and behavioral changes, like giving away belongings, can be concerning signs of possible suicidal ideation. Assessing for suicidal thoughts is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of harm or assess for suicidal ideation. Choice C is incorrect because simply reassuring the client about the effectiveness of antidepressants does not address the immediate concern of suicidal ideation. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on praising progress without addressing the potential risk of harm the client may pose to herself.
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