HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The nurse is planning to ambulate a client who has been on bed rest for 24 hours following a Colon Resection. To ambulate this client safely, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place non-skid shoes on the client
- B. Show the client how to use the call light
- C. Use a gait belt to support the client
- D. Assist the client to a bedside sitting position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To ambulate a client safely after a period of bed rest, the nurse should first assist the client to a bedside sitting position. This initial step ensures the client is stable before attempting to stand and walk, reducing the risk of falls and allowing for a gradual adjustment to activity post-bed rest. Placing non-skid shoes, showing how to use the call light, or using a gait belt are important but should come after ensuring the client is safely seated and stable.
2. During a bed bath, the nurse observes that a client's IV site is red and swollen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Discontinue the IV under physician's guidance
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Notify the physician
- D. Document the appearance of the site and continue the bath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action when a nurse observes a red and swollen IV site during a bed bath is to notify the physician. This is crucial because prompt reporting allows for immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Discontinuing the IV (Choice A) should only be done under the physician's guidance to avoid any adverse effects and ensure proper care. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation if the cause is an infection or infiltration. Documenting the site's appearance and continuing the bath (Choice D) without immediate action might delay necessary treatment, leading to potential complications.
3. After delivering a healthy newborn, a client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. What initial intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Perform a uterine massage
- C. Monitor the newborn's vital signs
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for postpartum hemorrhage is to perform a uterine massage. This action helps the uterus contract, controlling bleeding. Administering IV fluids may be necessary but is not the initial intervention. Monitoring the newborn's vital signs is important but not the priority when managing postpartum hemorrhage. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate interventions to address the hemorrhage.
4. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. After 2 weeks of antidepressant medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving her belongings away to her visitors, and is in an overall better mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective
- D. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. Sudden mood improvements and behavioral changes, like giving away belongings, can be concerning signs of possible suicidal ideation. Assessing for suicidal thoughts is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of harm or assess for suicidal ideation. Choice C is incorrect because simply reassuring the client about the effectiveness of antidepressants does not address the immediate concern of suicidal ideation. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on praising progress without addressing the potential risk of harm the client may pose to herself.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Right upper quadrant pain
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.
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