HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The nurse is planning to ambulate a client who has been on bed rest for 24 hours following a Colon Resection. To ambulate this client safely, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place non-skid shoes on the client
- B. Show the client how to use the call light
- C. Use a gait belt to support the client
- D. Assist the client to a bedside sitting position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To ambulate a client safely after a period of bed rest, the nurse should first assist the client to a bedside sitting position. This initial step ensures the client is stable before attempting to stand and walk, reducing the risk of falls and allowing for a gradual adjustment to activity post-bed rest. Placing non-skid shoes, showing how to use the call light, or using a gait belt are important but should come after ensuring the client is safely seated and stable.
2. The nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has a yellowish tint to the skin. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Reassure the parents that this is normal
- B. Monitor the infant's bilirubin levels
- C. Increase the frequency of feedings
- D. Administer phototherapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a newborn presents with a yellowish tint to the skin, it can indicate jaundice, which is caused by elevated bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's bilirubin levels is crucial to assess the severity of jaundice and determine the need for further intervention. Reassuring the parents without proper assessment could lead to delayed treatment if jaundice is present. Increasing the frequency of feedings may not address the underlying cause of jaundice. Administering phototherapy is a treatment option that should be based on bilirubin level assessment and healthcare provider's recommendation.
3. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
4. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse prioritize in the discharge instructions?
- A. Warning signs of a potential heart attack
- B. Importance of medication adherence
- C. Follow-up appointment details
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction, the nurse should prioritize providing comprehensive instructions. This includes educating the client about warning signs of a potential heart attack to recognize symptoms early, stressing the importance of medication adherence for optimal recovery and prevention of further cardiac events, and ensuring understanding of follow-up appointment details for ongoing monitoring and care. All these aspects are crucial in preventing complications and promoting the client's well-being. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of a holistic discharge plan for a client post-myocardial infarction.
5. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?
- A. Engage the client in a quiet activity
- B. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimulation
- C. Monitor the client continuously
- D. Adjust the lighting and noise levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience sensory overload and agitation. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimulation is the most appropriate initial intervention as it can help reduce overwhelming sensory input and promote a sense of calm. Engaging the client in a quiet activity (Choice A) may not be effective if the environment is still overstimulating. Continuous monitoring (Choice C) is important but may not be the first intervention needed. Adjusting lighting and noise levels (Choice D) can be helpful but may not address the core issue of sensory overload and agitation during a manic episode.
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