HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
- A. Increase fiber intake.
- B. Avoid spicy foods.
- C. Avoid dairy products.
- D. Consume a high-fat diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.
2. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client who is beginning to form a decubitus ulcer at the coccyx. Which intervention will be most helpful in preventing further development of the decubitus ulcer?
- A. Encourage the client to eat foods high in protein
- B. Assess the client for daily range of motion exercises
- C. Teach the family how to perform sterile wound care
- D. Ensure the IV fluids are administered as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to eat foods high in protein is crucial in preventing further development of decubitus ulcers as high protein foods support tissue repair and skin integrity. Adequate protein intake is essential for wound healing. Assessing the client for daily range of motion exercises is important for preventing complications related to immobility, but it may not directly address the prevention of decubitus ulcers. Teaching the family how to perform sterile wound care is significant for wound management but may not be the most effective intervention to prevent further development of decubitus ulcers. Ensuring IV fluids are administered as prescribed is essential for maintaining hydration status but is not the most relevant intervention for preventing decubitus ulcers.
3. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?
- A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
- B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
- C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
- D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer bronchodilator therapy as prescribed.
- B. Inhale the medication slowly while pressing down on the inhaler.
- C. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- D. Increase the oxygen flow rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing by maximizing chest expansion and allowing for better airflow. While administering bronchodilator therapy is important, positioning the client for improved breathing takes priority. Inhaling the medication slowly and pressing down on the inhaler is a correct technique for inhaler use but not the priority intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be needed, but adjusting the client's position to a high-Fowler's position is the priority to address the shortness of breath in COPD.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Right upper quadrant pain
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.
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