Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?

• A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
• B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
• C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
• D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.

2. A client is being treated for pneumonia and is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The nurse notes that the client has developed a rash and is complaining of itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

• A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion
• C. Apply a cool compress to the rash
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial nursing action when a client develops a rash and itching while receiving intravenous antibiotics is to discontinue the antibiotic infusion. This is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice A) can be considered after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion. Applying a cool compress to the rash (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should come after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion to ensure the client's safety.

3. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.

4. The client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself every day at the same time.
• B. I will call my doctor if my legs swell more.
• C. I will take my water pill only when I feel short of breath.
• D. I will limit the amount of salt in my diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to help manage fluid retention in chronic heart failure. This statement indicates a need for further teaching as the client needs to understand the importance of consistent medication adherence. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of self-care management in heart failure, including daily weight monitoring, prompt reporting of worsening symptoms to the healthcare provider, and dietary sodium restriction, respectively.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

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