Nursing Elites

1. A client with herpes zoster asks the nurse about using complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that this condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

• A. Biofeedback
• B. Aloe
• C. Feverfew
• D. Acupuncture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acupuncture is contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster due to the risk of introducing an open portal on the skin, which can increase the risk of infection. This therapy involves inserting needles into specific points on the body, potentially causing skin trauma and providing a route for the virus to spread. Biofeedback, aloe, and feverfew are not contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster and can be considered for pain management in this condition. Biofeedback involves using electronic devices to help individuals learn to control physiological processes, aloe is a plant known for its skin-soothing properties, and feverfew is an herb that has been used for pain relief.

2. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

5. A client is expressing anger about his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief.
• B. Ignore the client’s anger and continue with the plan of care.
• C. Tell the client that anger is not going to help his situation.
• D. Encourage the client to express his anger.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is expressing anger about a diagnosis, it is essential for the nurse to validate the client's feelings. Choice A is correct because reassuring the client that anger is an expected response to grief acknowledges the client's emotions and encourages expression, fostering a therapeutic relationship. This validation helps the client feel understood and supported during a challenging time. Choice B is incorrect as ignoring the client's anger can lead to feelings of neglect and hinder effective communication, which is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice C is inappropriate because telling the client that anger is not helpful dismisses the client's emotions and can further escalate the situation, potentially damaging the nurse-client relationship. Choice D is not the best option as it does not involve acknowledging the client's feelings or providing support and validation, which are vital in promoting emotional well-being and trust between the client and the nurse.

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