cpr has been initiated for the client in the er the nurse understands that a critical concept related to effective cardiac chest compressions is the n
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

3. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

4. A client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best intervention for a client experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is to provide antiemetic medication as prescribed. This medication helps in managing and reducing nausea and vomiting, providing relief to the client. Offering small, frequent meals (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Encouraging clear liquid intake (Choice C) may not be effective in controlling nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Assisting with oral care (Choice D) is important for overall comfort but may not directly address the symptoms of nausea and vomiting.

5. A nursing assistive personnel (AP) is providing AM care to patients. Which action by the NAP will require the nurse to intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Turning a patient's head with a neck injury to the side when giving oral care can lead to harm or further injury. The neck should be kept in a neutral position to prevent exacerbation of the injury. Choices A, B, and C are not actions that require immediate nurse intervention. Not offering a backrub, not washing a patient's hair, or turning off the television are not critical issues that pose harm to the patient's well-being or safety.

Similar Questions

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