HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?
- A. Regular physical activity
- B. Scheduled sleep patterns
- C. Social interaction with family and friends
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.
2. Which of the following is a common barrier to effective communication in healthcare?
- A. Active listening
- B. Cultural differences
- C. Clear language
- D. Empathy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cultural differences are a common barrier to effective communication in healthcare. When individuals from different cultures interact in healthcare settings, varying communication styles, beliefs, values, and language barriers can hinder effective communication. This can lead to misunderstandings, misinterpretations, and ultimately impact the quality of care provided. Active listening (choice A) is a communication skill that helps improve understanding and can actually enhance communication. Clear language (choice C) is essential for effective communication and can help overcome barriers, rather than being a barrier itself. Empathy (choice D) is important in healthcare to understand patients' emotions and perspectives, but it is not a common barrier to effective communication.
3. A client at 37 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with contractions every two minutes. The nurse observes several shallow small vesicles on her pubis, labia, and perineum. The nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?
- A. Genital Warts
- B. Syphilis
- C. Herpes Simplex Virus
- D. German Measles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). HSV can present with small vesicles on the genital area, and it is a concern during labor due to the risk of transmission to the newborn. Genital warts (Choice A) are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically present as flesh-colored growths, not vesicles. Syphilis (Choice B) manifests as painless sores and can have systemic effects but does not typically present with vesicles. German measles (Choice D), also known as Rubella, is a viral illness characterized by a red rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, not vesicles.
4. The nurse has explained safety precautions and infant care to a primigravida mother and observes the mother as she gives care to her newborn during the first two days of rooming-in. Which action indicates the mother understands the instruction?
- A. Aspirates the newborn’s nares using a syringe
- B. Applies a dressing to the cord after the newborn’s bath
- C. Breastfeeds the infant every hour during the night
- D. Positions the infant supine in the crib to sleep
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Positioning the infant supine in the crib to sleep is the correct action that indicates the mother understands the instruction. This position is recommended to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Choice A is incorrect as it is not a routine or recommended practice to aspirate the newborn’s nares using a syringe without a specific medical indication. Choice B is incorrect because applying a dressing to the cord after the newborn's bath is not a standard care practice. Choice C is incorrect because breastfeeding every hour during the night is excessive and not a recommended feeding schedule for a newborn.
5. Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?
- A. Begin positive pressure ventilations
- B. Provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing
- C. Assess the newborn's skin condition and color
- D. Start chest compressions and contact medical control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a newborn, a heart rate below 100 beats/min indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing blow-by oxygen or assessing skin condition/color may not address the primary issue of inadequate oxygenation due to the low heart rate. Starting chest compressions and contacting medical control is not warranted as the newborn is breathing spontaneously and only has a slightly low heart rate, which can be managed initially with positive pressure ventilations.