Nursing Elites

1. A client with a severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested peanut-containing food and is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer an epinephrine injection
• B. Call for immediate medical help
• C. Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing anaphylaxis due to a severe peanut allergy is to administer an epinephrine injection. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it can rapidly reverse the severe allergic reaction. While calling for immediate medical help is important, administering epinephrine takes precedence because it can be life-saving in this situation. Monitoring airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in managing anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine is the priority action to halt the progression of the allergic reaction and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, 'Administer an epinephrine injection' is the most critical initial intervention.

2. After placing a client at 26-weeks gestation in the lithotomy position, the client complains of dizziness and becomes pale and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Place a wedge under the client's hip.
• C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
• D. Remove the client's legs from the stirrups.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a wedge under the client's hip is the correct action in this scenario. This helps relieve the pressure on the vena cava, which can become compressed in the lithotomy position during pregnancy, improving circulation and reducing symptoms like dizziness and pallor. Instructing the client to take deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice C) would worsen the situation by further compressing the vena cava. Removing the client's legs from the stirrups (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the issue.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with a urinary catheter in place. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

• A. Irrigate the catheter daily
• B. Ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level
• C. Change the catheter every 48 hours
• D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of CAUTIs. Choice A, irrigating the catheter daily, is not recommended as it can introduce pathogens into the bladder. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice C) can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for preventing CAUTIs and can lead to antibiotic resistance.

5. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

• A. Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
• B. Drinks two beers daily
• C. Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun
• D. Eats while lying in bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

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