HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. A client with a severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested peanut-containing food and is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer an epinephrine injection
- B. Call for immediate medical help
- C. Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing anaphylaxis due to a severe peanut allergy is to administer an epinephrine injection. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it can rapidly reverse the severe allergic reaction. While calling for immediate medical help is important, administering epinephrine takes precedence because it can be life-saving in this situation. Monitoring airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in managing anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine is the priority action to halt the progression of the allergic reaction and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, 'Administer an epinephrine injection' is the most critical initial intervention.
2. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse prioritize in the discharge instructions?
- A. Warning signs of a potential heart attack
- B. Importance of medication adherence
- C. Follow-up appointment details
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction, the nurse should prioritize providing comprehensive instructions. This includes educating the client about warning signs of a potential heart attack to recognize symptoms early, stressing the importance of medication adherence for optimal recovery and prevention of further cardiac events, and ensuring understanding of follow-up appointment details for ongoing monitoring and care. All these aspects are crucial in preventing complications and promoting the client's well-being. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of a holistic discharge plan for a client post-myocardial infarction.
3. The client is being taught about a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?
- A. Fresh fruits
- B. Canned vegetables
- C. Fresh chicken
- D. Unsalted nuts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Canned vegetables. Canned vegetables are often high in sodium due to the preservation process, so they should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits (choice A), fresh chicken (choice C), and unsalted nuts (choice D) are all low-sodium options and can be included in a low-sodium diet. It is important to choose fresh or frozen vegetables over canned ones to reduce sodium intake. Fresh chicken and unsalted nuts are also good protein sources that are naturally low in sodium, making them suitable for a low-sodium diet. Therefore, clients following a low-sodium diet should prioritize fresh, whole foods over processed or canned options.
4. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?
- A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
- B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
- C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
- D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL
- B. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
- D. BUN 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.
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