HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. A client with a severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested peanut-containing food and is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer an epinephrine injection
- B. Call for immediate medical help
- C. Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing anaphylaxis due to a severe peanut allergy is to administer an epinephrine injection. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it can rapidly reverse the severe allergic reaction. While calling for immediate medical help is important, administering epinephrine takes precedence because it can be life-saving in this situation. Monitoring airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in managing anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine is the priority action to halt the progression of the allergic reaction and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, 'Administer an epinephrine injection' is the most critical initial intervention.
2. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
3. A client reports pain after medication administration. What is the next best step for the nurse?
- A. Reassess the client’s pain
- B. Increase the pain medication dose
- C. Apply a cold compress
- D. Contact the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to reassess the client’s pain. Reassessment is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the initial intervention. By reassessing, the nurse can determine if the current pain management plan is adequate or if further interventions are required. Increasing the pain medication dose without reassessment can lead to overmedication and potential adverse effects. Applying a cold compress may not address the underlying cause of the pain and should be based on a proper assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be considered if the reassessment indicates a need for further evaluation or intervention beyond the nurse's scope of practice.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Encourage fluid intake
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently
- D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering insulin is the priority nursing action for a client admitted with hyperglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels and prevent further complications associated with hyperglycemia. Encouraging fluid intake is important but not the priority as insulin administration takes precedence to address the immediate hyperglycemic state. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is essential but comes after administering insulin to ensure the treatment's effectiveness. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is incorrect as the client is admitted with hyperglycemia, which requires raising blood glucose levels, not lowering them further.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What technique should the nurse emphasize?
- A. The importance of using a spacer
- B. How to synchronize breaths with inhaler activation
- C. Regular cleaning of the inhaler
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing COPD with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse should emphasize all of the techniques mentioned. Using a spacer can help improve drug delivery and reduce the risk of oral thrush. Synchronizing breaths with inhaler activation ensures proper medication delivery to the lungs. Regular cleaning of the inhaler prevents blockages and ensures optimal functioning. Therefore, all these techniques are important for effective COPD management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial components of proper MDI technique in COPD, so they are not individually sufficient without the others.
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