Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is demonstrating wound care to a client following abdominal surgery. In what order should the nurse teach the technique?

• A. Remove old dressing using clean gloves. Discard gloves with old dressing
• B. Moisten sterile gauze with normal saline. Clean wound from least contaminated area to most contaminated area
• C. Apply sterile gauze dressing to wound area
• D. Secure dressing with tape

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order ensures proper aseptic technique and wound care to prevent infection. The first step is to remove the old dressing using clean gloves to prevent contamination. Discarding the gloves with the old dressing helps maintain cleanliness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because cleaning the wound, applying a new dressing, and securing it should come after removing the old dressing to maintain asepsis and prevent infection.

2. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

3. The nurse is obtaining the medical histories of new clients at a community-based primary care clinic. Which individual has the highest risk for experiencing elder abuse?

• A. A 69-year-old widowed female who lives alone and volunteers at a school
• B. A 95-year-old ambulatory male who resides in a nursing home in a small town
• C. A 78-year-old female on a fixed income who lives with her relatives
• D. An 81-year-old male with diabetes who lives with his wife of 52 years

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elder abuse risk is higher in individuals who live with relatives and are on a fixed income as these factors can contribute to vulnerability. Living with relatives may expose the individual to potential abusive situations within the family dynamics. Additionally, being on a fixed income may limit financial independence and increase dependency on others, potentially leading to financial abuse. The other options, such as living alone and volunteering, residing in a nursing home, or living with a long-term spouse, do not inherently pose the same level of risk factors for elder abuse as living with relatives on a fixed income.

4. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

5. Which situation is a violation of client confidentiality, as described in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

• A. A sign-in sheet kept at the front desk listing clients' last names and the time of their arrival
• B. A nurse's handwritten notes from a telephone report discarded in the office wastebasket
• C. A computer monitor screen located at the nurse's station in a high-traffic area
• D. Privileged Health Information (PHI) given to an ambulance driver for the transfer of a client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is a violation of client confidentiality as it exposes patient information to unauthorized individuals due to its location in a high-traffic area. HIPAA regulations require that electronic protected health information (ePHI) be safeguarded against unauthorized access, making the situation described in choice C a violation. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve the exposure of patient information to unauthorized individuals. While choices A and B may pose some risks, they are not as severe as the direct exposure described in choice C. Choice D involves sharing information with an ambulance driver for a legitimate purpose, which does not violate HIPAA if done securely and in compliance with regulations.

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