Nursing Elites

1. An older client comes to the clinic with a family member. When the nurse attempts to take the client’s health history, the client does not respond to questions clearly. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assess the surroundings for noise and distractions
• B. Provide a printed health history form
• C. Defer the health history until the client is less anxious
• D. Ask the family member to answer the questions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to assess the surroundings for noise and distractions. This step is crucial as environmental factors can affect the client's ability to respond clearly. By minimizing noise and distractions, the nurse can create a more conducive environment for effective communication. Providing a printed form (Choice B) may help but addressing environmental factors should come first. Deferring the health history (Choice C) or asking the family member to answer the questions (Choice D) should not be the initial steps, as they do not directly address the issue of unclear communication with the client.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
• D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.

3. When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Lactate
• B. Glucose
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Creatinine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, monitoring glucose levels is crucial as Cushing syndrome often leads to hyperglycemia. Elevated glucose levels are a common manifestation of Cushing syndrome due to increased cortisol levels. Monitoring glucose helps in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively. Lactate levels are not typically affected by Cushing syndrome. Hemoglobin and creatinine levels are important for other conditions like anemia and kidney function, but they are not the priority in Cushing syndrome.

4. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)

• A. Platelet count
• B. White blood cell count (WBC)
• C. Sodium and potassium
• D. Red blood cell count (RBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.

5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

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