Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

2. A charge nurse is talking with a newly licensed nurse and is reviewing nursing interventions that do not require a provider’s prescription. Which of the following interventions should the charge nurse include?

• A. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate as needed for pain
• B. Inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube to relieve gastric distention
• C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation
• D. Performing a daily bath after the evening meal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation is an intervention that does not require a provider's prescription. This falls within the nurse's scope of practice and can be implemented to promote relaxation and reduce stress for the client. Choices A and B involve tasks that require a provider's prescription and specialized training. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate and inserting an NG tube should only be done by authorized healthcare providers. Choice D, performing a daily bath, while within the nurse's scope, does not specifically address interventions that do not require a provider's prescription.

3. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

4. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

5. A client who is non-ambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Evacuate the client
• B. Attempt to extinguish the fire
• C. Call the fire department
• D. Close the door to contain the fire

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to Evacuate the client (Choice A). In the event of a fire, the safety of the client is the top priority. The RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish) mnemonic is used in fire emergencies. The first step is to Rescue or Evacuate the individual from immediate danger. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice B) may endanger both the client and the nurse. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety. Closing the door to contain the fire (Choice D) is not appropriate in this scenario because the priority is to remove the client from harm's way.

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