HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.
2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Reassure the client that this is not a normal finding.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Document the finding in the client’s chart.
- D. Encourage the client to seek medical attention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
3. A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?
- A. Decreased subcutaneous fat
- B. Muscle atrophy
- C. Pressure injury
- D. Fecal impaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.
4. When a client files a lawsuit against an LPN for malpractice, the client must prove that there is a link between the harm suffered and actions performed by the nurse that were negligent. This is known as:
- A. Evidence
- B. Tort discovery
- C. Proximate cause
- D. Common cause
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Proximate cause.' Proximate cause establishes the link between the harm suffered and the negligent actions performed by the nurse. In a malpractice lawsuit, proving proximate cause is essential to demonstrate that the nurse's actions directly led to the harm experienced by the client. Choice A, 'Evidence,' is incorrect as evidence is the information presented to support or refute a claim, not specifically the link between harm and negligence. Choice B, 'Tort discovery,' is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to establishing the link between harm and negligence. Choice D, 'Common cause,' is incorrect as it does not capture the legal concept of proximate cause in establishing liability in malpractice cases.
5. In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
- A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
- B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
- C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
- D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.
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