Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

2. A nurse enters a client's room and finds her on the floor. The client's roommate reports that the client was trying to get out of bed and fell over the bedrail onto the floor. Which of the following statements should the nurse document about this incident?

• A. ''Incident report completed.''
• B. ''Client climbed over the bedrails.''
• C. ''Client found lying on the floor.''
• D. ''Client was trying to get out of bed.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: ''Client found lying on the floor.'' In this situation, the nurse should document factual, objective information without making assumptions. Stating that the client was found lying on the floor directly reflects what was observed. Choice A, ''Incident report completed,'' is not a statement about the incident itself and does not provide relevant information. Choice B, ''Client climbed over the bedrails,'' introduces unnecessary speculation and assumption which should be avoided when documenting incidents. Choice D, ''Client was trying to get out of bed,'' focuses on the client's behavior rather than the objective observation of the client's position when found.

3. When developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, what should the LPN/LVN remember about confusion in the elderly?

• A. It is not a normal part of aging.
• B. It often follows relocation to new surroundings.
• C. It is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease.
• D. It cannot be prevented or cured by adequate sleep alone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with dementia, it is crucial to understand that confusion often arises after relocating to new surroundings. This change can disrupt familiar routines and trigger increased disorientation and confusion. Choice A is correct because confusion in the elderly is not a normal part of aging. Choice C is incorrect because confusion in dementia is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease, not just irreversible brain pathology. Choice D is incorrect because while adequate sleep is important for overall health, it alone cannot prevent or cure confusion associated with dementia.

4. A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?

• A. Chin, elbow, hips
• B. Ileum, clavicle, humerus
• C. Shoulder, anterior iliac spine, ankles
• D. Occipital region of the head, coccyx, heels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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