Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Inject the medication into the muscle.
• D. Pinch the skin before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, which means it should be injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Administering enoxaparin at a 90-degree angle ensures proper absorption and reduces the risk of injecting the medication into muscle tissue, which could affect its effectiveness. Injecting the medication at a 45-degree angle may lead to improper absorption as it may not reach the subcutaneous tissue adequately. Injecting the medication into the muscle instead of subcutaneously can alter the absorption rate and therapeutic effects. Pinching the skin before injecting is not necessary for administering enoxaparin subcutaneously and may cause unnecessary discomfort to the client.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

4. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

5. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?

• A. Becoming actively involved in providing guidance to the next generation.
• B. Adjusting to major changes in roles and relationships due to losses.
• C. Devoting time to establishing an occupation.
• D. Finding oneself 'sandwiched' between and being responsible for two generations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.

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