HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.
2. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Measure the client's urine output.
- B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin is being discharged. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to complete first?
- A. Provide the client with printed information on insulin self-administration.
- B. Obtain printed information on insulin self-administration.
- C. Make a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client.
- D. Determine whether the client can afford the insulin administration supplies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining printed information on insulin self-administration should be the nurse's first priority. This action ensures that the client has the necessary knowledge to safely self-administer insulin at home. Providing the client with printed information (Choice A) is essential to empower the client with the required knowledge before considering additional resources. Making a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client (Choice C) is important for documentation purposes but not as urgent as ensuring the client's understanding of insulin administration. Determining the client's ability to afford insulin administration supplies (Choice D) is crucial but should follow after ensuring the client is equipped with the necessary information for safe self-administration.
4. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?
- A. Absence of a pulse
- B. Presence of a pulse
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.
5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Increase in hematocrit
- B. Increase in respiratory rate
- C. Decrease in heart rate
- D. Decrease in capillary refill time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.
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