Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

2. A hospitalized toddler who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis holds a toy and says 'Mine'. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, this child's behavior is a demonstration of which developmental stage?

• A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
• B. Industry vs. Inferiority
• C. Initiative vs. Guilt
• D. Trust vs. Mistrust

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. In Erikson's theory, toddlers aged 1-3 years are in the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage. During this stage, children begin to assert their independence and control over their environment. The behavior of the hospitalized toddler holding a toy and saying 'Mine' demonstrates the child's developing sense of autonomy and ownership. Choices B, C, and D correspond to different stages in Erikson's theory: Industry vs. Inferiority (school-age children), Initiative vs. Guilt (preschoolers), and Trust vs. Mistrust (infants), respectively, which are not applicable to the behavior described.

3. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
• C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
• D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.

4. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
• B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
• C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.

5. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?

• A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain
• B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.

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