HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is planning to obtain the vital signs of a 2-year-old child who is experiencing diarrhea and who might have a right ear infection. Which of the following routes should the healthcare professional use to obtain the temperature?
- A. Temporal
- B. Oral
- C. Rectal
- D. Axillary
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a 2-year-old child with diarrhea and a possible ear infection, rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate reflection of core body temperature. This method provides the most reliable reading, especially in young children, as it closely reflects the core body temperature. Oral temperature may not be accurate due to the child's recent diarrhea, which can affect oral readings. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature in this case. Temporal temperature measurement, although non-invasive, may not provide the most accurate core body temperature reading, especially in a child with a potential ear infection.
2. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. What is the most important action for the healthcare professional to take to ensure the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Milk the chest tube to ensure patency.
- B. Clamp the chest tube when moving the client.
- C. Ensure the water seal chamber is filled to the appropriate level.
- D. Secure the chest tube to the client's bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the appropriate level is crucial to maintain the effectiveness of the chest tube drainage system. This step helps prevent air from entering the pleural space, ensuring proper lung re-expansion. 'Milking' the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the chest tube and surrounding tissues. Clamping the chest tube is not advisable as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Securing the chest tube to the bed is important for stability but does not directly impact the functioning of the chest tube.
3. The debilitated patient is resisting attempts by the nurse to provide oral hygiene. Which action will the nurse take next?
- A. Insert an oral airway.
- B. Place the patient in a flat, supine position.
- C. Use undiluted hydrogen peroxide as a cleaner.
- D. Quickly proceed without talking to the patient.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a debilitated patient resists oral hygiene, the nurse should prioritize safety. Inserting an oral airway helps keep the mouth open, ensuring adequate access for oral care procedures while preventing any accidental biting or closure of the airway. Placing the patient in a flat, supine position may not address the resistance issue and can lead to aspiration risk. Using undiluted hydrogen peroxide is not recommended due to its potential harmful effects on oral tissues. Proceeding quickly without communication can escalate the situation and compromise patient-centered care.
4. An older adult client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about starting a regular physical activity program. Which type of activity should the nurse recommend?
- A. Walking briskly
- B. Riding a bicycle
- C. Performing isometric exercises
- D. Engaging in high-impact aerobics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is walking briskly. Weight-bearing exercises, such as brisk walking, are recommended for individuals at risk for osteoporosis because they help maintain bone mass and prevent bone loss. Riding a bicycle and performing isometric exercises are not weight-bearing activities, and therefore, may not provide the same bone-strengthening benefits as walking. High-impact aerobics can increase the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis due to the high level of impact involved.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 0.3 mL
- B. 0.25 mL
- C. 0.4 mL
- D. 0.5 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.
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