HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?
- A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
- B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
- C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
- D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.
2. The healthcare provider writes several prescriptions for a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) that include a combination of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics.
- B. Obtain a chest X-ray.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Collect blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Collecting blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy is the priority intervention in a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism responsible for the infection and ensure that the antibiotics prescribed are appropriate for effective treatment. Administering antibiotics before collecting cultures may interfere with the accuracy of culture results, potentially leading to inappropriate treatment. While administering the first dose of antibiotics is important, obtaining a chest X-ray and administering oxygen therapy are secondary interventions compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.
3. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement if a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia?
- A. Compare the client’s pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing.
- B. Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
- C. Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain.
- D. Document the client’s report of pain in the electronic medical record.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia, the nurse should first compare the client’s pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This action ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Determining the onset of action or asking the client to choose the medication does not guarantee that the right medication is administered according to the pain intensity. Documenting the pain report is important but should not be the first action when deciding which medication to administer.
4. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
- B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.
5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access