HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?
- A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
- B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
- C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
- D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.
2. A client with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to eat quickly.
- B. Provide a straw for liquids.
- C. Place the client in an upright position during meals.
- D. Offer thin liquids.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client in an upright position during meals is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in a client with Parkinson's disease. This position helps facilitate swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to eat quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice B is not the best option as straws may not prevent aspiration effectively. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids can actually increase the risk of aspiration in individuals with swallowing difficulties.
3. While assessing a client with degenerative joint disease, the nurse observes Heberden's nodes, large prominences on the client's fingers that are reddened. The client reports that the nodes are painful. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Review the client's dietary intake of high protein foods
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately
- C. Discuss approaches to chronic pain control with the client
- D. Assess the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Discussing approaches to chronic pain control is the most appropriate action in this situation as it helps the client manage the chronic pain associated with Heberden's nodes. Reviewing the client's dietary intake of high protein foods (Choice A) is not directly related to managing the pain caused by Heberden's nodes. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there are urgent complications. Assessing the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time (Choice D) is important but not the priority in addressing the client's reported pain and the presence of Heberden's nodes.
4. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?
- A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
- B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?
- A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
- B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
- C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
- D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.
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