Nursing Elites

1. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?

• A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
• B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
• C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
• D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.

2. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?

• A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
• B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
• C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
• D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.

3. A client who had a radical neck dissection returns to the surgical unit with 2 JP drains in the right side of the incision. One JP tube is open and has minimal drainage. Which action should the nurse take to increase drainage into the JP?

• A. Reinforce the incisional dressings and assess behind the neck for drainage.
• B. Place the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Irrigate the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS, then close the opening with its tab.
• D. Compress the bulb with the tab open and then reinsert the tab into its opening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Compressing the bulb with the tab open creates suction, which helps increase drainage into the JP drain. This action can aid in removing accumulated fluids from the surgical site. Reinforcing the incisional dressings and assessing behind the neck for drainage (Choice A) is not directly related to increasing drainage into the JP. Placing the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) may not directly impact drainage into the JP drain. Irrigating the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS and then closing the opening with its tab (Choice C) is unnecessary and could introduce contaminants into the drain.

4. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

5. An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?

• A. Capillary refill takes > 3 seconds.
• B. Episodes of vertigo and loss of balance.
• C. Average daily output of 1200 ml.
• D. Pulse rate of 110 beats/minute and dyspnea upon exertion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tachycardia and dyspnea are signs of fluid overload, which is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to fluid overload and are not typical signs of complications associated with the IV fluid therapy being administered.

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