HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?
- A. Mucus-like stools
- B. Currant jelly-like stools
- C. Tarry, black stools
- D. Green, soft stools
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The hallmark sign of intussusception is currant jelly-like stools, which result from the mixture of blood and mucus in the stool due to the sloughing of intestinal mucosa. Mucus-like stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with intussusception. Tarry, black stools (Choice C) are characteristic of gastrointestinal bleeding higher up in the gastrointestinal tract, such as from a peptic ulcer. Green, soft stools (Choice D) are more indicative of rapid transit through the intestines, possibly due to dietary factors or infections such as gastroenteritis.
2. What could suddenly occur in a child with acute epiglottitis?
- A. Increased carbon dioxide levels
- B. Airway obstruction
- C. Inability to swallow
- D. Bronchial collapse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute epiglottitis, the infected epiglottis becomes inflamed and can lead to sudden airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening emergency. This can cause difficulty breathing and necessitates immediate intervention to secure the airway. Increased carbon dioxide levels may occur due to inadequate ventilation resulting from airway obstruction, but the primary concern is the obstruction itself, not the carbon dioxide levels. Inability to swallow may be present due to pain and swelling in the throat but is not the immediate life-threatening complication associated with acute epiglottitis. Bronchial collapse is not a typical consequence of acute epiglottitis.
3. A client with COPD is receiving home oxygen therapy. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase oxygen flow rate during physical activity
- B. Smoke at least 10 feet away from the oxygen source
- C. Use petroleum jelly to prevent nasal dryness
- D. Ensure the oxygen tank is stored in a secure upright position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy is to ensure the oxygen tank is stored in a secure upright position. This is crucial to prevent accidents such as leaks or falls that can lead to serious injury or damage. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the oxygen flow rate during physical activity without a healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as smoking near an oxygen source can cause a fire hazard. Choice C is incorrect as petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used around oxygen due to the risk of combustion.
4. On the first postoperative day, the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. Previously, he was oriented to person, place, and time on admission. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a sedative.
- B. Determine the client’s blood pressure.
- C. Apply soft restraints.
- D. Call for assistance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement first is to determine the client’s blood pressure. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to rule out physiological causes like hypotension leading to the client's disorientation. Administering a sedative (Choice A) without understanding the underlying cause may worsen the situation. Applying soft restraints (Choice C) should not be the initial action and can be considered later if necessary. Calling for assistance (Choice D) may be needed eventually, but assessing the client's blood pressure takes precedence to address the immediate concern.
5. Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
- B. Reposition the client for comfort.
- C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.
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