HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
- A. I will need to change the colostomy bag every day.
- B. I should avoid foods that can cause gas, such as beans and carbonated drinks.
- C. I need to empty the colostomy bag when it is one-third to one-half full.
- D. I will need to take care of the skin around the stoma to prevent irritation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Changing the colostomy bag every day is not necessary; it should be changed as needed, usually every 3-7 days. This statement indicates a need for additional teaching as frequent changes can irritate the skin and are not typically required. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding colostomy care. Avoiding gas-producing foods, emptying the bag when it is one-third to one-half full, and taking care of the skin around the stoma are all essential aspects of colostomy care to prevent complications and maintain skin integrity.
2. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
- B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
- C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
- D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.
3. A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:
- A. Solutes in the urine
- B. Bacteria in the urine
- C. pH level of the urine
- D. Glucose in the urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.
4. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?
- A. Pain related to ischemia
- B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
- C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
- D. Anxiety related to pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.
5. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
- A. Chocolate pudding.
- B. Graham crackers.
- C. Sugar-free gelatin.
- D. Apple slices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access