Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. I will need to change the colostomy bag every day.
• B. I should avoid foods that can cause gas, such as beans and carbonated drinks.
• C. I need to empty the colostomy bag when it is one-third to one-half full.
• D. I will need to take care of the skin around the stoma to prevent irritation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Changing the colostomy bag every day is not necessary; it should be changed as needed, usually every 3-7 days. This statement indicates a need for additional teaching as frequent changes can irritate the skin and are not typically required. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding colostomy care. Avoiding gas-producing foods, emptying the bag when it is one-third to one-half full, and taking care of the skin around the stoma are all essential aspects of colostomy care to prevent complications and maintain skin integrity.

2. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?

• A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
• B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
• C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
• D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.

3. A nurse is inserting an IV catheter for a client that results in a blood spill on her gloved hand. The client has no documented bloodstream infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene
• B. Continue with the procedure and clean hands later
• C. Remove the gloves, wash hands, and start over
• D. Use hand sanitizer and continue the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene. This is important to prevent potential contamination and maintain infection control practices. Option B is incorrect because cleaning hands later may lead to the spread of potential contaminants. Option C is unnecessary as starting over is not required if proper hand hygiene is performed. Option D is not sufficient in ensuring proper hygiene after a blood spill, as hand sanitizer may not effectively remove all contaminants.

4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

5. A healthcare professional is instructing an AP about caring for a client who has a low platelet count. Which of the following instructions is the priority for measuring vital signs for this client?

• A. Avoid measuring the client’s temperature rectally.
• B. Count the client’s radial pulse for 30 seconds and multiply it by 2.
• C. Count the client’s respirations discreetly.
• D. Allow the client to rest for 5 minutes before measuring their BP.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid measuring the client’s temperature rectally. Rectal temperatures can cause bleeding in clients with low platelet counts. It is crucial to avoid invasive methods that could increase the risk of bleeding or discomfort. Choice B, counting the radial pulse, is not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client with low platelet count. Choice C, counting respirations discreetly, is important for accuracy but is not the priority when considering the risk of bleeding. Choice D, letting the client rest before measuring blood pressure, is beneficial but is not the priority in preventing potential harm due to low platelet counts.

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